QM: Coordinate & Momentum Representation w/ Fourier Transform

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The discussion focuses on the coordinate and momentum representations of wave functions in quantum mechanics, specifically using the Fourier transform. The correct momentum representation is given by the equation ##\psi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\psi(x)e^{-\frac{ipx}{\hbar}}dx##. The inclusion of the factor ##\hbar## is crucial for proper normalization, as demonstrated through the normalization integral which confirms that the factor of ##1/\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}## is necessary for maintaining the integrity of the wave function's normalization. The discussion also highlights the importance of the delta function in the context of Fourier transforms.

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LagrangeEuler
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Coordinate representation ##\psi=\psi(x)##
Momentum representation ##\psi=\psi(p)##
Fourier transform
[tex]\psi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\psi(x)e^{-\frac{ipx}{\hbar}}dx[/tex]
I'm confused with this ##\hbar##? Why not
[tex]\psi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\frac{1}{\hbar}\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\psi(x)e^{-\frac{ipx}{\hbar}}dx[/tex]?
 
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Because ∫exp(ikx) dk ≡ 2π δ(x). And therefore ∫exp(ipx/ħ) dp = 2π δ(x/ħ) = 2πħ δ(x).

Look at the normalization integral, with the 1/√2πħ factors included:

1 = ∫ψ*(p) ψ(p) dp = 1/(2πħ) ∫∫∫ψ*(x) exp(ipx/ħ) ψ*(x') exp(-ipx'/ħ) dp dx dx'

Do the p integral, using line 1:

= 1/(2πħ) ∫∫ψ*(x) ψ*(x') (2πħ) δ(x - x') dx dx'

Next do the x' integral, using the δ-fn. See we again get the correct normalization:

1 = ∫ψ*(x) ψ*(x) dx

Note that the factors of 2πħ canceled, showing that the 1/√2πħ was necessary!

EDIT: Hold on! I see you asked the exact same question on two consecutive threads!
 

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