Quantum Field Theory-Gauge Transformations

jameson2
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Homework Statement


Given the Lagrangian density [tex]L(\phi^{\mu})=-\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi^{\nu})(\partial^{\mu}\phi_{\nu}) + \frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi^{\mu})^2+\frac{m^2}{2}(\phi^{\mu}\phi_{\mu})[/tex]
and gauge transformation [tex]\phi^{\mu}\rightarrow \phi^{\mu} + \partial^{\mu}\alpha[/tex]

(c) Introduce one extra real scalar field [tex]\sigma[/tex] and write some interacting Lagrangian [tex]L^{\prime}=L(\phi^{\mu})+L^2(\phi^{\mu},\sigma)[/tex] which is invariant under the gauge transformation and gives the original L for [tex]\sigma=0[/tex].

(d) Can we solve (c) with sigma that has a canonical kinetic term [tex]-\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\sigma)^2[/tex]

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution


The first parts of the question show that [tex]\partial_{\mu}\phi^{\mu}=0[/tex] which simplifies the Lagrangian, and also that the initial Lagrangian is not invariant under the gauge transformation. I got those out.
But parts (c) and (d) seems like the kind of thing you either know or you don't, is there a way of working it out?
 
on Phys.org
Bumping this because I would also like to know if (c) and (d) can be solved in a way that doesn't involve trial and error or just knowing the answer.
 

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