Quantum Field Theory: Stationary Point of the Effective Action

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the effective action in quantum field theory, specifically focusing on the stationary point of the effective action and its implications for vacuum expectation values. Participants are examining a formula related to the expansion of the effective action and the definition of the terms involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand the origin of the formula for the effective action and the meaning of the term \(\Gamma_n\). There is a discussion about whether \(\Gamma_n\) should be evaluated at the stationary point \(\varphi_0\) or at \(\varphi = 0\), raising questions about the proper context for the expansion.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with some participants providing insights into the nature of the expansion and the definition of \(\Gamma_n\). There is a recognition of potential ambiguity in the reference material, and participants are exploring different interpretations of the evaluation point for \(\Gamma_n\).

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a specific reference (Peskin & Schroeder) that may not fully clarify the definitions or context needed for the discussion, leading to questions about the completeness of the provided information.

latentcorpse
Messages
1,411
Reaction score
0
We have the effective action which obeys [itex]\frac{\delta \Gamma[\varphi]}{\delta \varphi(x)}=J(x)[/itex] where and we are told the stationary point, [itex]\varphi_0[/itex], of this action, [itex]\frac{\delta \Gamma[\varphi_0]}{\delta \varphi(x)}=0[/itex], corresponds to the vacuum expectation value.
(This is out of my notes - there is a discussion around p380 of Peskin & Schroeder on this although it goes a bit more in depth than my notes...)

Anyway, on the next page, he just says that we can write

[itex]\Gamma[\varphi]=i \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{n!} \int d^dx_1 \dots \int d^dx_n \varphi(x_1) \dots \varphi(x_n) \Gamma_n (x_1, \dots , x_n)[/itex]

Can anybody explain to me where this formula has come from? And what is [itex]\Gamma_n[/itex]? He hasn't defined that either.

Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Up to the factor of [tex]i[/tex] this is just a power-series expansion for a functional. [tex]\Gamma_n[/tex] can be expressed in terms of functional derivatives of [tex]\Gamma[/tex] evaluated at [tex]\phi = 0[/tex] as written.
 
fzero said:
Up to the factor of [tex]i[/tex] this is just a power-series expansion for a functional. [tex]\Gamma_n[/tex] can be expressed in terms of functional derivatives of [tex]\Gamma[/tex] evaluated at [tex]\phi = 0[/tex] as written.

Ok. So I found that [itex]\Gamma_n = - i \frac{\delta^n \Gamma [ \varphi ] }{ \delta \varphi(x_1) \dots \delta \varphi(x_n)}|_{\varphi=0}[/itex]

But shouldn't this be evaluated at [itex]\varhpi = \varphi_0[/itex] i.e. the minimum of the effective potential?
 
latentcorpse said:
Ok. So I found that [itex]\Gamma_n = - i \frac{\delta^n \Gamma [ \varphi ] }{ \delta \varphi(x_1) \dots \delta \varphi(x_n)}|_{\varphi=0}[/itex]

But shouldn't this be evaluated at [itex]\varhpi = \varphi_0[/itex] i.e. the minimum of the effective potential?

The whole expansion should be made around [tex]\varphi=\varphi_0[/tex]. Your reference is either being sloppy or you've left out information.
 

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
1K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
5K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K