Quantum Mechanics - Ehrenfest's Theorem

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SUMMARY

Ehrenfest's theorem states that the expectation values of measurable quantities in quantum mechanics behave according to classical physics equations. In the context of an infinite square well, the expectation value of position remains constant in a stationary state, leading to a zero momentum . However, this does not imply that the expectation value of energy is also zero, as the energy eigenvalues are well-defined by the boundary conditions of the system. The misunderstanding arises from incorrectly applying the kinetic energy formula without considering the potential energy contribution.

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  • Understanding of Ehrenfest's theorem in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with infinite square well potential
  • Knowledge of energy eigenstates and Hamiltonians
  • Basic principles of expectation values in quantum mechanics
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  • Learn about the role of potential energy in quantum systems
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dsr39
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We have to apply Ehrenfest's theorem and I don't think it was ever explained well to us. I have read that expectation values of measurable quantities behave according to classical physics equations

ie.
M\frac{d\left<x(t)\right>}{dt} = \left<p(t)\right>

I think I must be applying this idea wrong because I don't see how this result works out for the calculation of <E(t)> for an infinite square well in a particular energy eigenstate.

For an infinite square well in a stationary state.
\left&lt;x(t)\right&gt;=const \to M\frac{d\left&lt;x(t)\right&gt;}{dt} = 0

That quantity is equal to momentum so <p> is zero, and does that also mean <E(t)> is zero since

\left&lt;E(t)\right&gt; = \frac{\left&lt;p(t)\right&gt;^2}{2m}

But <E(t)> shouldn't be zero because the energies in stationary states for the infinite square well are very clearly defined by the boundary conditions and which stationary state you're in. How am I wrongly applying Ehrenfest's theorem... your help is greatly appreciated. Thank you.
 
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E is the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian (the mechanical energy operator). So you forgot to count in the potential energy. The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.
 
The Potential term is zero, I think because it is in an infinite well where the potential at the walls (-L/2 and +L/2) is defined to be infinity and the potential at -L/2<x<L/2 is defined to be zero.
 
faen said:
The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.
No, it is not.

dsr39 said:
\left&lt;E(t)\right&gt; = \frac{\left&lt;p(t)\right&gt;^2}{2m}
That's not correct. The square lives inside the (expectation value) sum/integral, not outside it.
 
faen said:
E is the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian (the mechanical energy operator). So you forgot to count in the potential energy. The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.

The last 2 statements are wrong. Next time, leave out the phrase "of course" if you don't know what you're talking about :-) Gokul is right.
 
Last edited:
I see where I was going wrong, thanks for the help.
 

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