Quantum Mechanics - Ehrenfest's Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Ehrenfest's theorem in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of an infinite square well and the calculation of expectation values for energy and momentum in stationary states.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply Ehrenfest's theorem but expresses confusion regarding the expectation values of energy and momentum in a stationary state of an infinite square well. Participants question the treatment of kinetic and potential energy in this context and the implications of the theorem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying misunderstandings about the application of Ehrenfest's theorem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the treatment of kinetic and potential energy, and there are differing interpretations about the correctness of certain statements made in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing debate about the definitions and calculations of expectation values in stationary states, particularly concerning the potential energy in an infinite square well and the implications for kinetic energy.

dsr39
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We have to apply Ehrenfest's theorem and I don't think it was ever explained well to us. I have read that expectation values of measurable quantities behave according to classical physics equations

ie.
[tex]M\frac{d\left<x(t)\right>}{dt} = \left<p(t)\right>[/tex]

I think I must be applying this idea wrong because I don't see how this result works out for the calculation of <E(t)> for an infinite square well in a particular energy eigenstate.

For an infinite square well in a stationary state.
[tex]\left<x(t)\right>=const \to M\frac{d\left<x(t)\right>}{dt} = 0[/tex]

That quantity is equal to momentum so <p> is zero, and does that also mean <E(t)> is zero since

[tex]\left<E(t)\right> = \frac{\left<p(t)\right>^2}{2m}[/tex]

But <E(t)> shouldn't be zero because the energies in stationary states for the infinite square well are very clearly defined by the boundary conditions and which stationary state you're in. How am I wrongly applying Ehrenfest's theorem... your help is greatly appreciated. Thank you.
 
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E is the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian (the mechanical energy operator). So you forgot to count in the potential energy. The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.
 
The Potential term is zero, I think because it is in an infinite well where the potential at the walls (-L/2 and +L/2) is defined to be infinity and the potential at -L/2<x<L/2 is defined to be zero.
 
faen said:
The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.
No, it is not.

dsr39 said:
[tex]\left<E(t)\right> = \frac{\left<p(t)\right>^2}{2m}[/tex]
That's not correct. The square lives inside the (expectation value) sum/integral, not outside it.
 
faen said:
E is the eigenvalue of the hamiltonian (the mechanical energy operator). So you forgot to count in the potential energy. The expectation value of the kinetical energy which you calculated, is ofcorse zero in a stationary state.

The last 2 statements are wrong. Next time, leave out the phrase "of course" if you don't know what you're talking about :-) Gokul is right.
 
Last edited:
I see where I was going wrong, thanks for the help.
 

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