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Quantum music

  1. Apr 1, 2015 #1

    Demystifier

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  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 1, 2015 #2

    Nugatory

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    And I bet that you carefully paced your activity here so that you could make this one your 5000th, right? :smile:
     
  4. Apr 1, 2015 #3

    atyy

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    Looks like dBB has been falsified!
     
  5. Apr 1, 2015 #4

    Demystifier

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    Of course I did, but don't believe me what I say today! o0)
     
  6. Apr 1, 2015 #5

    Demystifier

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    Not very surprising, given that the same day last year we had a proof that many worlds are right (see the closed thread linked in the first post above).

    Still, can you elaborate a bit?
     
    Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
  7. Apr 1, 2015 #6

    atyy

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    Maybe MWI has also been falsified.

    "If a classical auditorium listens to the quantum musical state ##| \psi\rangle## in Eq. 1, then the individual listeners may perceive ##| \psi\rangle## very differently; that is, they will hear only a single one of the different tones with probabilities ##|\alpha_{c}|^{2}##, ##|\alpha_{d}|^{2}##, . . ., and ##|\alpha_{b}|^{2}##, respectively."
     
  8. Apr 1, 2015 #7

    Demystifier

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    You are right, the only interpretation that remains consistent with this crucial insight is the QMI (quantum music interpretation). This implies the equation
    QM=QM
    (quantum mechanics = quantum music). Dividing by Q, this gives
    M=M
    (mechanics = music) which proves that Einstein was very close to the truth (because he played violline), while Feynman was not (sounds created by drums cannot really be considered a music).

    Remarkably, the same result can also be obtained in a totally different way. From the famous equation
    ER=EPR
    (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ER=EPR ) one finds
    P=1
    which means that the probability P that Einstein and Rosen (ER) are right is P=1. But Einstein and Rosen agreed on everything (note ER on both sides of the ER=EPR equation), so this reduces to the conclusion that probability that Einstein alone was right is equal to one. In other words, Einstein was right. Q.E.D.
     
    Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
  9. Apr 1, 2015 #8

    atyy

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    But what if Q=0?

    Or if E=0 or R=0, then P can have any value?

    Maybe that can be excluded by considering ##a|0\rangle=0##?
     
    Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
  10. Apr 1, 2015 #9

    micromass

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    Am I the only one who wants to hear a quantum music piece? Hmm, I guess I could make a small computer program that simulates it...
     
  11. Apr 1, 2015 #10
    That could be interesting. I'd like to see what you come up with if you find the time to do it.
    I suspect though that it wouldn't sound the slightest bit like 'music' as defined in any cultural context.
    More likely white noise is my guess.
     
  12. Apr 1, 2015 #11

    micromass

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    It would be interesting if I took two famous pieces and entangled them :biggrin:
     
  13. Apr 1, 2015 #12

    atyy

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  14. Apr 1, 2015 #13
    This post is not a joke :wink::
    http://www.dubbhism.com/2008/11/quantum-hall-effects-impulse-responses.html [Broken]

    EDIT: My note: IR means impulse response(s), which are used in convolution reverbs.
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 7, 2017
  15. Apr 2, 2015 #14

    Demystifier

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    The following paper appeared today (April 2nd), but contains an explicit comment that it was submitted at April 1st. So it deserves a full attention here:
    http://lanl.arxiv.org/abs/1504.00108

    This is not merely a joke, but also has a deeper message ...
     
    Last edited: Apr 2, 2015
  16. Apr 2, 2015 #15

    Nugatory

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    A careful scrutiny of the footnotes is essential for a full appreciation of this paper.
     
  17. Apr 2, 2015 #16
    E.g.
    :DD
     
  18. Aug 18, 2015 #17

    Demystifier

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    Last edited by a moderator: May 7, 2017
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