# Quantum music

1. Apr 1, 2015

2. Apr 1, 2015

### Staff: Mentor

And I bet that you carefully paced your activity here so that you could make this one your 5000th, right?

3. Apr 1, 2015

### atyy

Looks like dBB has been falsified!

4. Apr 1, 2015

### Demystifier

Of course I did, but don't believe me what I say today!

5. Apr 1, 2015

### Demystifier

Not very surprising, given that the same day last year we had a proof that many worlds are right (see the closed thread linked in the first post above).

Still, can you elaborate a bit?

Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
6. Apr 1, 2015

### atyy

Maybe MWI has also been falsified.

"If a classical auditorium listens to the quantum musical state $| \psi\rangle$ in Eq. 1, then the individual listeners may perceive $| \psi\rangle$ very differently; that is, they will hear only a single one of the different tones with probabilities $|\alpha_{c}|^{2}$, $|\alpha_{d}|^{2}$, . . ., and $|\alpha_{b}|^{2}$, respectively."

7. Apr 1, 2015

### Demystifier

You are right, the only interpretation that remains consistent with this crucial insight is the QMI (quantum music interpretation). This implies the equation
QM=QM
(quantum mechanics = quantum music). Dividing by Q, this gives
M=M
(mechanics = music) which proves that Einstein was very close to the truth (because he played violline), while Feynman was not (sounds created by drums cannot really be considered a music).

Remarkably, the same result can also be obtained in a totally different way. From the famous equation
ER=EPR
(see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ER=EPR ) one finds
P=1
which means that the probability P that Einstein and Rosen (ER) are right is P=1. But Einstein and Rosen agreed on everything (note ER on both sides of the ER=EPR equation), so this reduces to the conclusion that probability that Einstein alone was right is equal to one. In other words, Einstein was right. Q.E.D.

Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
8. Apr 1, 2015

### atyy

But what if Q=0?

Or if E=0 or R=0, then P can have any value?

Maybe that can be excluded by considering $a|0\rangle=0$?

Last edited: Apr 1, 2015
9. Apr 1, 2015

### micromass

Staff Emeritus
Am I the only one who wants to hear a quantum music piece? Hmm, I guess I could make a small computer program that simulates it...

10. Apr 1, 2015

### rootone

That could be interesting. I'd like to see what you come up with if you find the time to do it.
I suspect though that it wouldn't sound the slightest bit like 'music' as defined in any cultural context.
More likely white noise is my guess.

11. Apr 1, 2015

### micromass

Staff Emeritus
It would be interesting if I took two famous pieces and entangled them

12. Apr 1, 2015

### atyy

13. Apr 1, 2015

### DennisN

This post is not a joke :
http://www.dubbhism.com/2008/11/quantum-hall-effects-impulse-responses.html [Broken]

EDIT: My note: IR means impulse response(s), which are used in convolution reverbs.

Last edited by a moderator: May 7, 2017
14. Apr 2, 2015

### Demystifier

The following paper appeared today (April 2nd), but contains an explicit comment that it was submitted at April 1st. So it deserves a full attention here:
http://lanl.arxiv.org/abs/1504.00108

This is not merely a joke, but also has a deeper message ...

Last edited: Apr 2, 2015
15. Apr 2, 2015

### Staff: Mentor

A careful scrutiny of the footnotes is essential for a full appreciation of this paper.

16. Apr 2, 2015

### DennisN

E.g.

17. Aug 18, 2015

### Demystifier

Last edited by a moderator: May 7, 2017