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Quantum Scale, Statistical Physics

  1. Apr 5, 2013 #1
    So the probabilistic studying of Quantum statistics of Böse-Einstein suggests that we permutate the number of objects (objects, are the blocks (Gi-1), and the particles in the boxes Ni) and divide those by Ni! And (Gi-1)! Because these particles are identical. But the case of Fermi-Dirac, where only one particle is allowed in a block(unlike the previous case of B.E where many particles are allowed per block), probabilistic studying of it suggests that we permutate an empty block by a block containing one particle.

    My question is why didn't our probabilistic study in the first case suggests also the permutation with an empty block.

    Don't hesistate to ask if the question is not clear enough.Thanks.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 5, 2013 #2
    Gi here is the degeneracy of each block.
     
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