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I just want to clarify something written in my textbook - a contradiction of sorts.

My book says, if i have two functions, Y1 Y2, and their wronskian is 0 at any point on the interval I, the functions are dependant functions.

However, while doing a problem, I found the wronskian to be 2t^3 for two functions Y1 Y2. Clearly, this wronskian is 0 when t=0. ACcording to the original theoram this would imply the functions are dependant on the interval (-infinity, infinity). However that (Seems like) is the wrong answer.

Can someone clarify? thanks

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# Question about independance of functions and wronskian

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