Question about inverse operators differential operators

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation of the operator A = 1/(d/dx) within the context of quantum mechanics. Participants explore how this operator behaves when applied to a wave function ψ, particularly in relation to its eigenvalues and the mathematical framework involving Fourier transforms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the interpretation of the operator A = 1/(d/dx) and its implications for eigenvalues when applied to normalized square integrable functions.
  • Another participant suggests that the operator can be understood through Fourier transforms, providing a mathematical framework for defining the operator for negative or fractional orders of differentiation.
  • A participant seeks clarification on the notation used in the integral representation, specifically questioning the presence of the 'd' in the integration notation.
  • Responses clarify that the 'd' is standard notation for integration, with some discussion on the differences between integral expressions commonly used in mathematics and physics.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying levels of understanding regarding the operator and its mathematical representation. There is no consensus on the interpretation of the operator or its eigenvalues, and the discussion remains exploratory.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference the convergence of integrals for defining the operator in non-standard cases, indicating potential limitations in the assumptions about the functions involved.

cmcraes
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Hi all, so I'm not sure if what I'm asking is trivial or interesting, but is there any general or canonical way to interpret say, The follwing operator? (Specifically in the study of quantum mechanics):

A = 1/(d/dx) (I do not mean d-1/dx-1, which is the antiderivative operator )

How would Aψ behave and what (if any) eigenvalues would It have? I'm assuming ψ is in the space of square integrable functions and is normalized.

Thanks!
 
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cmcraes said:
Hi all, so I'm not sure if what I'm asking is trivial or interesting, but is there any general or canonical way to interpret say, The follwing operator? (Specifically in the study of quantum mechanics):

A = 1/(d/dx) (I do not mean d-1/dx-1, which is the antiderivative operator )

How would Aψ behave and what (if any) eigenvalues would It have? I'm assuming ψ is in the space of square integrable functions and is normalized.

Thanks!

You can make sense of it in terms of Fourier transforms:

\psi(x) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int dk e^{i k x} \tilde{\psi}(k)
(\frac{d}{dx})^n \psi(x) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int (ik)^n e^{i k x} \tilde{\psi}(k)

If the integral on the right converges for some value of n, then you can let that be the definition of (\frac{d}{dx})^n \psi(x) for n negative or even fractional.
 
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stevendaryl said:
You can make sense of it in terms of Fourier transforms:

\psi(x) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int dk e^{i k x} \tilde{\psi}(k)
(\frac{d}{dx})^n \psi(x) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int (ik)^n e^{i k x} \tilde{\psi}(k)

If the integral on the right converges for some value of n, then you can let that be the definition of (\frac{d}{dx})^n \psi(x) for n negative or even fractional.

Hi, thanks for your answer. Where does the d come from in your first formula? I've never seen it there before.
 
That's just the notation for integration \int dk is an integral over k
 
cmcraes said:
Hi, thanks for your answer. Where does the d come from in your first formula? I've never seen it there before.
There are two equivalent ways to write an integral: ##\int f(x)dx## or ##\int dxf(x)##. The latter is often used in physics, because their expressions of ##f(x)## are frequently quite long, such that it is helpful to note at the start which is the integration variable. The first one is, I think, more traditional and the usual one in mathematics.
 

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