- #1
Phileas.Fogg
- 32
- 0
Hello,
in our lecture, we computed [tex] \beta^{\overline{MS}} , \gamma_m^{\overline{MS}}[/tex] for [tex] - \frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^4 [/tex] Theory.
These are:
[tex]
\beta^{\overline{MS}} (\lambda_{\overline{MS}}) = b_1 \lambda_{\overline{MS}}^2 + O(\lambda_{\overline{MS}}^3) [/tex]
[tex]
\gamma_m^{\overline{MS}} (\lambda_{\overline{MS}}) = d_1 \lambda_{\overline{MS}} + O(\lambda_{\overline{MS}}^2)
[/tex]
Is there any change, if one goes to a [tex] - \frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^2 [/tex] Theory?
I think that the Lagrangian changes to:
[tex] L = \frac{1}{2} Z (\partial_{\mu} \phi_R)^2 - \frac{1}{2} m_0^2 Z \phi_R^2 - \frac{\lambda_0}{4!} Z \phi_R^2[/tex]
But that has no effect on computing the beta- and gamma-function. Am I right?
Regards,
Mr. Fogg
in our lecture, we computed [tex] \beta^{\overline{MS}} , \gamma_m^{\overline{MS}}[/tex] for [tex] - \frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^4 [/tex] Theory.
These are:
[tex]
\beta^{\overline{MS}} (\lambda_{\overline{MS}}) = b_1 \lambda_{\overline{MS}}^2 + O(\lambda_{\overline{MS}}^3) [/tex]
[tex]
\gamma_m^{\overline{MS}} (\lambda_{\overline{MS}}) = d_1 \lambda_{\overline{MS}} + O(\lambda_{\overline{MS}}^2)
[/tex]
Is there any change, if one goes to a [tex] - \frac{\lambda}{4!} \phi^2 [/tex] Theory?
I think that the Lagrangian changes to:
[tex] L = \frac{1}{2} Z (\partial_{\mu} \phi_R)^2 - \frac{1}{2} m_0^2 Z \phi_R^2 - \frac{\lambda_0}{4!} Z \phi_R^2[/tex]
But that has no effect on computing the beta- and gamma-function. Am I right?
Regards,
Mr. Fogg