MHB Question related to inverse sine functions

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The discussion revolves around the differences in results from two cases involving the inverse sine function. Case 1 yields -π/3, while Case 2 results in π/3, leading to confusion about which is correct. The key point is that the inverse sine function, arcsin(x), is defined only within the range of -π/2 to π/2, which affects the outputs. Ignoring this restriction can lead to incorrect conclusions. Understanding the domain of the arcsin function is crucial for determining the correct answer.
gsn57iaf
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Please guide why answers are different in following
two cases and which one is correct?
Case 1. sin-1 ( – 1/2 ) – sin-1 (– 1) = 7π/6 – 3π/2 = – π/3
Case 2. sin-1 ( – 1/2 ) – sin-1 (– 1)
= – sin-1 ( 1/2 ) + sin-1 (1)

= – π/6 + π/2 = π/3
 
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gsn57iaf said:
Please guide why answers are different in following
two cases and which one is correct?
Case 1. sin-1 ( – 1/2 ) – sin-1 (– 1) = 7π/6 – 3π/2 = – π/3
Case 2. sin-1 ( – 1/2 ) – sin-1 (– 1)
= – sin-1 ( 1/2 ) + sin-1 (1)

= – π/6 + π/2 = π/3

In order to have an inverse function, a function needs to be one-to-one on its domain. As $\displaystyle \begin{align*} y = \sin{(x)} \end{align*}$ is not, its domain is restricted. By convention, the domain chosen is $\displaystyle \begin{align*} -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}$. That means that the inverse sine function is defined to give an output restricted to $\displaystyle \begin{align*} -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq \arcsin{(x)} \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}$. So with this knowledge, which one do you think gives the correct answer?
 
Prove It said:
In order to have an inverse function, a function needs to be one-to-one on its domain. As $\displaystyle \begin{align*} y = \sin{(x)} \end{align*}$ is not, its domain is restricted. By convention, the domain chosen is $\displaystyle \begin{align*} -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}$. That means that the inverse sine function is defined to give an output restricted to $\displaystyle \begin{align*} -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq \arcsin{(x)} \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}$. So with this knowledge, which one do you think gives the correct answer?

Thanks sir. The key $\displaystyle \begin{align*} -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq \arcsin{(x)} \leq \frac{\pi}{2} \end{align*}$ I ignored in search of answer.
 
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