Question using Hubble's Constant

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The discussion focuses on converting Hubble's constant from SI units of s-1 to kms-1 Mpc-1, specifically starting with the value 2.31 x 10^-18 s-1. The conversion process involves rewriting the constant in terms of meters and seconds, then adjusting for kilometers and megaparsecs, resulting in a final value of 71.4 kms-1 Mpc-1. There is confusion regarding a mark scheme example that suggests using Hubble's constant in years-1, where the participant argues that this would lead to incorrect units despite the scheme stating otherwise. The conversation highlights the importance of unit consistency in calculations and the distinction between observed and derived values of the Hubble constant. Understanding these conversions is crucial for accurate cosmological measurements.
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Homework Statement


Converting Hubble's constant in SI units of s-1 into kms-1 Mpc-1 (kilometers per second per megaparsec)
Number given is 2.31 x 10^-18 s-1.

Homework Equations


H = v/d (where H is Hubble's constant, v = velocity and d = distance)

The Attempt at a Solution


I can see how you get the answer but it took me a while to see the reasoning for what to divide/multiply by. I reasoned that if you use H = v/d then 2.31 x 10^-18 s-1 can be re-written as 2.31 x 10^-18 ms-1 m-1 (meters per second per metre). I then treated the numerator and denominator separately. So to get from m/s to km per second you divide by 1000. Then to get from per metre to per megaparsec you multiply by the number of metres in a megaparsec. So overall you get 2.31 x 10^-18 x 3.09 x 10^22 / 1000 which gives 71.4 kms-1 Mpc-1. Using the same logic I don't understand something on the additional notes in the mark scheme for this question. I have uploaded the question and markscheme. They have shown an example of if you forget to convert hubble's constant into s-1 otherwise it will be in years-1. They then work this answer through the same way and give less marks for it however they say that the units are still kms-1 Mpc-1 at the end but that seems wrong to me. If you take hubble's constant in years-1 instead of seconds-1 and then multiply by the same number and divide by the same number surely its impossible to end up with the same final units? or am I missing something?
 

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I think they just give half mark because the reasonning behind it is somewhat correct and the answer if off "only" because it confuses units - but you are right, that second answer is just wrong (unless 2×10^9=71:wink:).

Note that calculating the Hubble constant from the age of the universe is rather dubious, and that constant is actually observed, not derived.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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