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Quick question about hydrogen atom perturbation

  1. Mar 31, 2017 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    a.jpg
    I have already solved the problem, but I don't really understand why the orbital angular momentum in the z-direction has to be taken to 0 ?

    2. Relevant equations


    3. The attempt at a solution
    Suppose the component of orbital angular momentum in the z-direction is non-zero, that means there are extra angular momentum apart from l = 1 in the 2p state ? So when excitation occurs,it is no longer a "2p" state? Just a guess :nb)
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 31, 2017 #2

    DrClaude

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    Staff: Mentor

    What is the quantum number related to the projection of angular momentum?
     
  4. Mar 31, 2017 #3
    Oh,do you mean that the problem asks you to compute the probability from 1s -> |210> because m = 0 in the z-direction? So basically the remaining two n = 2 states have nothing to do with this question?
     
  5. Mar 31, 2017 #4

    vela

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    Staff Emeritus
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    Check out http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/quantum/vecmod.html to see why your guess isn't correct.

    The problem asked you to calculate the probability for a given final state. It could have specified a different final state and given you a different expression for the probability.
     
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