Quicky on (div)B: No Magnetic Monopoles

[robousy]

Hey there,

can someone give me a nice explanation as to why (div)B = 0 implies there are no magnetic monopoles?

If you could explain mathematically and or intuitively I'd be really grateful as I've 'known' this fact for years, but never really understood.

 

[Doc Al]

Try this: http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electric/maxeq2.html#c2"

 

[robousy]

Ok, I'll take a look, thanks!

 

[Repetit]

To answer that question you would need to rewrite Div B into an integral using gauss' law. The integral you get is the magnetic flux through a closed surface, and this then implies that the magnetic flux through any closed surface is always equal to zero. In other words, there is always a balance between magnetic southpole and magnetic northpole which exactly cancels out, so that there cannot be a surplus of one or the other inside a closed surface. This again means that there can be no magnetic monopoles.