Why Do Some Theorists Claim Cosmic Inflation Dilutes Magnetic Monopoles?

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GaloisGroup
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TL;DR
Why would non-existent monopoles be "diluted" by cosmic inflation?
So if Maxwell's Equations state that Div B = 0 which is a statement that there are no magnetic monopoles why do some folks claim that Cosmic Inflation "dilutes" magnetic monopoles?
 
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##\nabla\cdot\vec B=0## is a statement that we don't see magnetic monopoles, not a proof that there are none.

A reason why we don't see any (either they exist, but are super rare, or they don't exist at all) would be nice.
 
The magnetic monopoles that are considered in cosmology are not point particles. They are topological defects resulting from phase transitions in the early Universe, typically in grand unified theories.
 
I am fascinated by the Dirac quantization condition that pertains to the existence of a single magnetic monopole.
 
The equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = 0 $$ rules out the existence of magnetic monopoles but there is another equation $$ \vec \nabla \cdot \vec B = \mu _ 0 \rho _ m $$ which includes the existence of magnetic monopoles.
 
GaloisGroup said:
why do some folks claim that ….?
Do you have a particular instance of this claim? It’s hard to have a sensible discussion without that.