MHB Radius and Interval of Convergence for (x/sin(n))^n

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The discussion focuses on finding the radius and interval of convergence for the series ∑(x/sin(n))^n. The ratio test is initially considered but deemed ineffective due to the behavior of sin(n). It is concluded that the radius of convergence is zero, as the terms of the series do not approach zero for infinitely many values of n when x is non-zero. The irregular nature of sin(n) leads to instances where |x/sin(n)| exceeds 1, preventing convergence. Therefore, the series diverges for any non-zero x.
Denis99
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Find Radius and Interval of Convergence for $$\sum_{1}^{\infty}(\frac{x}{sinn})^{n}$$.
I don`t have any ideas how to do that :/
 
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The standard method of determining the radius of convergence of power series is to use the "ratio test": \left|\left(\frac{x^{n+1}}{sin^{n+1}(n+1)}\right)\left(\frac{sin^n(n)}{x^n}\right)\right|= |x|\frac{sin^n(n)}{sin^{n+1}(n+1)}.

The radius of convergence is 1 over the limit of the fraction.
 
Country Boy said:
The standard method of determining the radius of convergence of power series is to use the "ratio test": \left|\left(\frac{x^{n+1}}{sin^{n+1}(n+1)}\right)\left(\frac{sin^n(n)}{x^n}\right)\right|= |x|\frac{sin^n(n)}{sin^{n+1}(n+1)}.

The radius of convergence is 1 over the limit of the fraction.

Thank you for your answer :)
I was thinking about this, but is there a way to calculate limit of this fraction? Sinuses are problematic for me in this limit.
 
Denis99 said:
Find Radius and Interval of Convergence for $$\sum_{1}^{\infty}(\frac{x}{sinn})^{n}$$.
I don't have any ideas how to do that :/
The ratio test won't work in this example. I think you will find that in this case the radius of convergence is zero. To see that, use the "$n$th term test": if the $n$th term of a series does not tend to zero then the series does not converge.

Informally, the argument goes like this. The value of $\sin n$ varies in a fairly random way in the interval $[-1,1]$, but from time to time it gets very close to zero. Now suppose that $x\ne0$. For infinitely many values of $n$, $\sin n$ will be small enough that $\left|\dfrac x{\sin n}\right| >1$. That shows that $\left(\dfrac x{\sin n}\right)^n \not\to0$, so the series $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(\dfrac x{\sin n}\right)^n$$ does not converge.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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