Random Variable Measurability w.r.t. Sigma Fields

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empyreandance
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Hello everyone,

I'm having a little trouble with a probability problem with three parts; I think I'm having trouble wrapping my head around just what's going on here. If anyone could give me a starting point, I'd appreciate it.

Here's the problem (Billingsley 5.1) (X a random variable)

a. Show that X is measurable w.r.t. the sigma field J iff sigma(X) is a subset of J. Show that X is a measurable w.r.t. sigma(Y) iff sigma(x) is a subset of sigma(Y)

b. Show that if J = {empty set, omega}, then X is measurable w.r.t. J iff X is constant.

c. Suppose that P(A) is 0 or 1 for every A in J. This holds, for example, if J is the tail field of an independent sequence, or if J consists of the countable and cocountable sets on the unit interval with Lebesgue measure. Show that if X is measurable w.r.t. J, then P[X=c] = 1 for some constant c.

Thanks for any and all help!

Best regards
 
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Hello,

I thought there might be some sort of topological argument, but the book is very analysis-oriented, so I was trying to stick to that line of thinking. σ(X) is defined as the smallest sigma field that X is measurable w.r.t., i.e. the intersection of all such fields.
 
empyreandance said:
Hello,

I thought there might be some sort of topological argument, but the book is very analysis-oriented, so I was trying to stick to that line of thinking. σ(X) is defined as the smallest sigma field that X is measurable w.r.t., i.e. the intersection of all such fields.

OK, so [itex]\sigma(X)[/itex] is the smallest sigma field such that X is measurable. Doesn't that make it easy to show that [itex]\sigma(X)\subseteq J[/itex]?? X is measurable w.r.t. J after all...
 
Ah yes, of course it does. I'm not sure why I missed that. Thanks. As for the other parts, any suggestions?
 
No, it's not bad at all. It's more parts b and c that I remain a bit lost on
 
Yes, definitely measurable. Oh! If X is not constant, then the inverse image maps to a set strictly smaller than the space, or am I completely confused now? My apologies, for some reason I'm having particular difficulty on this one.
 
Ah, either the empty set or the entire space. So, for {X=C} to be measurable it either has to be the empty set or omega.
 
It means the set of x in omega s.t. X(x) = c is the entire space, correct?
 
empyreandance said:
It means the set of x in omega s.t. X(x) = c is the entire space, correct?

So, if [itex]\{X=c\}=\Omega[/itex], then the function is constant, right??

What you have proven is that either [itex]\{X=c\}[/itex] is empty or is omega. If there is a c such that [itex]\{X=c\}[/itex], then you're done.

Now prove that there must exist such a c. Hint: what is [itex]\{X\in \mathbb{R}\}[/itex]??
 
Yes, the function is assuredly constant. X in R is the set of omega such that X(w) is in R. However, X is a random variable, so it maps from the the space to R. So, I feel the connections starting to coalesce in my head... I think now, Since J is the empty set or the whole space and we've shown that either {X=c} is empty or is omega, then since X in R is the set of omega such that X(w) is in R, which should be the entire space. Then, since if a X(y) = d, whereas X(x) = c elsewhere, both these sets would map back to sets strictly smaller than the space, but strictly larger than the empty set by the way they're defined, yes?
 
Awesome, I can't thank you enough for both your help and patience!