Real analysis:Showing a function is integrable

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Homework Statement


Let [itex]f:[0,2]-> R[/itex] be defined by[itex]f(x)= 1[/itex] if [itex]x≠1[/itex], and [itex]f(1)= 0[/itex]. Show that [itex]f[/itex] is integrable on [itex][0,2][/itex] and calculate its integral

Homework Equations


Lower integral of f

[itex]L(f)= sup {(P;f): P \in P(I)}[/itex]

Upper integral of f

[itex]U(f)= inf {U(P;f): P \in P(I)}[/itex]

Where,

[itex]L(P;f)= \sum m_{k}(x_{k}-x_{k-1})[/itex][itex]U(P;f)= \sum M_{k}(x_{k}-x_{k-1})[/itex]And lastly, [itex]U(f)=L(f)[/itex] if the integral exists

The Attempt at a Solution


So it seems pretty obvious the integral is equal to 2, but I am not sure how to deal with this function at x=1. I tried splitting the interval up into sections, but it turns out partitions only work if the interval is closed and bounded on R, so I couldn't do any open interval stuff. Any ideas?
 
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Office_Shredder said:
Given a partition, what can you say about Mk on every sub-interval? What about mk on every sub-interval except for 1?

Mk is always 1, and so is mk except for 1 subinterval it will be 0
 
The sub-intervals width depends on how large "n" is doesn't it? I don't see what you mean Halls of Ivy.
 
Office,

Are you saying that you could consider the interval containing 1 infintesimally small so that mk and Mk are zero on it? So this would be summing zero for the interval? I am not sure