Real and Complex Parts of a Wave Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the real and complex parts of a wave function in quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on the expression \(\Psi \frac{\partial \Psi^{*}}{\partial x}\) to determine the probability current for a free particle.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to clarify the role of the complex conjugate in the context of their homework problem and questions whether the real part of the wave function is zero. They explore the implications of this on the probability current.

Discussion Status

Participants have engaged in clarifying the concept of complex conjugates and their application to the wave function. There is an acknowledgment of the original poster's misunderstanding, and they seem to be on the path to resolving their confusion with the provided clarifications.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses uncertainty about the meaning of a "free particle" in relation to the probability current, indicating a potential area for further exploration or clarification.

Rahmuss
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Homework Statement



Just a snipit of one of my homework problems. I'm trying to find out what [tex]\Psi \frac{\partial \Psi^{*}}{\partial x}[/tex] equals to help me find out what the probability current for a given free particle is.

Homework Equations


[tex]\Psi = Ae^{i(kx-\frac{\hbar k^{2}t}{2m})}[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution



I view [tex]\Psi^{*}[/tex] as the complex part of the given wave function; but in this case there is no real part, it's all complex. Does that mean the real part is zero? If so then [tex]\Psi \frac{\partial \Psi^{*}}{\partial x} = 0[/tex]. If [tex]\Psi = \Psi^{*}[/tex], then the larger equation I'm trying to calculate comes out to be zero because it's:

[tex]\Psi \frac{\partial \Psi^{*}}{\partial x} - \Psi^{*} \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}[/tex]

So what am I missing here? Does it actually have a zero probability current because it's a "free particle" (whatever that really means)?
 
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I think you've been misinformed somewhere. The starred notation means the complex conjugate (certainly if this is quantum mechanics HW) of the function. Basically to find the complex conjugate of a complex function you reverse the sign in front of any i. For example:

If we have a general complex number z = a + ib then it has a complex conjugate of z* = a - ib.

There is more information about complex conjugates here:

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/ComplexConjugate.html
 
Last edited:
Kurdt - Ah, brilliant. Ok, yes, I do remember it being the conjugate. I think in my mind I had the idea that it dealt with something complex (I don't mean complicated; but [tex]i[/tex] ), and so I must have mentally given it the value of the complex portion of the wave function. Thanks for that clarification.

So, if I understand correctly, then in the case listed I would have

[tex]\Psi = Ae^{i(kx - \frac{\hbar k^{2}t}{2m})}[/tex]
and
[tex]\Psi^{*} = Ae^{-i(kx - \frac{\hbar k^{2}t}{2m})}[/tex]​

If that's correct, then I think I can figure it out. Thanks for the help. I'll jump back on later if I need more help; but for now it's off to class.
 
Rahmuss said:
So, if I understand correctly, then in the case listed I would have

[tex]\Psi = Ae^{i(kx - \frac{\hbar k^{2}t}{2m})}[/tex]
and
[tex]\Psi^{*} = Ae^{-i(kx - \frac{\hbar k^{2}t}{2m})}[/tex]​

If that's correct, then I think I can figure it out. Thanks for the help. I'll jump back on later if I need more help; but for now it's off to class.

Yeah that's it basically.
 

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