- #1
cocopops12
- 30
- 0
Can someone please explain WHY the statement below is valid:
s = σ + jω ; left hand side σ < 0
So it basically says if all the poles have negative real parts then we can directly substitute s = jω to get the Fourier transform.
This doesn't make sense to me, does it make sense to you?
s = σ + jω ; left hand side σ < 0
So it basically says if all the poles have negative real parts then we can directly substitute s = jω to get the Fourier transform.
This doesn't make sense to me, does it make sense to you?