AxiomOfChoice
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So if you have a countably infinite set \{ x_n \} and consider also the sequence (x_n), what's the relationship between \sup \{ x_n \} and \limsup x_n?
The relationship between the supremum (sup) and the limit superior (limsup) of a countably infinite sequence {x_n} is defined clearly: limsup equals sup if and only if there exists a subsequence converging to sup. In general, sup is always greater than or equal to limsup, and both concepts are only well-defined when the sequence is bounded above. For example, in the sequence 1, 1/2, 1/3, ..., the supremum is 1 while the limsup approaches 0, illustrating this relationship effectively.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, students of real analysis, and anyone interested in the properties of sequences and their limits will benefit from this discussion.
disregardthat said:limsup will equal sup if and only there is a subsequence converging to sup. In general sup is always larger or equal to limsup. Both are only well-defined if the sequence is bounded above.
limsup is the largest value for which there is a subsequence converging to it. In other words it's the largest limit point of the sequence. I may be mistaken, feel free to correct me if I'm wrong.
AxiomOfChoice said:No, this definitely makes sense. I suppose in the case of the sequence 1, 1/2, 1/3, \ldots, we have \sup\limits_n x_n = 1 (since 1 is certainly the least upper bound), but \limsup\limits_{n\to \infty} x_n = 0 (since 0 is the only limit point of this set). Thanks!