Remainder converges uniformly to 0

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the uniform convergence of the remainder of Lagrange interpolation for the function $f(x) = e^{\lambda x}$ on the interval $[a, b]$ as the number of interpolation points increases. Participants explore the mathematical formulation of the remainder and its behavior as $n \rightarrow \infty$.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant defines the remainder $R_n(x)$ and expresses the need to show its uniform convergence to 0.
  • Another participant suggests that the distance $|x - x_i|$ is bounded by $b - a$.
  • Participants discuss the supremum $\sup_{\xi_x \in [a,b]} e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ and its independence from $x$, with some uncertainty about its behavior.
  • There is a question about whether the expression for the remainder converges to 0 only if $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$ are less than 1.
  • Participants debate the correct formulation of the remainder and whether it should include $|b-a|^{n+1}$ instead of $|b-a|^n$.
  • There is a discussion about the asymptotic growth rates of $c^n$ versus $n!$, with some participants recalling previous explanations on the topic.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the conditions under which the remainder converges to 0, and there is no consensus on whether the convergence holds only under specific conditions for $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the exact formulation of the remainder and its convergence properties.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully resolved the implications of the supremum and the conditions necessary for the remainder to converge uniformly to 0. There are also unresolved questions about the asymptotic behavior of the terms involved.

mathmari
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Hey! :o

We have the function $f (x) = e^{\lambda x}$ on an interval $[a, b] , \ \lambda \in \mathbb{R}$.

I want to show that the remainder $R_n (x) = f (x)- p_n (x)$ at the lagrange interpolation of $f (x)$ with $n+1$ points from $[a, b]$ for $n \rightarrow \infty$ converges uniformly to $0$.

For each $n$ the points can be chosen arbitrarily in $[a, b]$.
The remainder is defined as $\displaystyle{R_n(x)=f(x)-p_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(\xi_x)}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)=\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)}$, right?

Then we have the following:

$\displaystyle{|R_n(x)|=|f(x)-p_n(x)|=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)\right |=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\right |\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|}\\ \displaystyle{\leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \sup_{x\in [a,b]}\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|}$

right?

How could we continue? (Wondering)
 
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Hey mathmari!

Isn't $|x-x_i| \le b-a$? (Wondering)
 
I like Serena said:
Isn't $|x-x_i| \le b-a$? (Wondering)

Ah yes! So, we have the following:

\begin{align*}|R_n(x)|&=|f(x)-p_n(x)|=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)\right |=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\right |\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i| \\ & \leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \sup_{x\in [a,b]}\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|\leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \prod_{i=0}^n|b-a|=\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n\end{align*}

Can we say also something for $\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ ? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
Can we say also something for $\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ ?

Isn't it a constant that is independent from $x$? (Wondering)
 
I like Serena said:
Isn't it a constant that is independent from $x$? (Wondering)

Ah, so is $\xi_x$ independent from $x$ ?
 
mathmari said:
Ah, so is $\xi_x$ independent from $x$ ?

Nope. But that supremum is either in $a$ or in $b$, isn't it? (Wondering)
 
I like Serena said:
Nope. But that supremum is either in $a$ or in $b$, isn't it?
Ah ok! So, say $c=\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ we get $$\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n$$ But how do we know that this converges to $0$ ? Doesn;t this hold only when $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$ are less than $1$ ? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
Ah ok! So, say $c=\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ we get $$\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n$$

Shouldn't that be $\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^{n+1}$? (Wondering)

mathmari said:
But how do we know that this converges to $0$ ? Doesn;t this hold only when $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$ are less than $1$ ? (Wondering)

Which increases asymptotically faster, $c^n$ or $n!$? (Wondering)
 
I like Serena said:
Shouldn't that be $\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^{n+1}$? (Wondering)

Oh yes, I forgot to counter $i=0$. (Blush)

I like Serena said:
Which increases asymptotically faster, $c^n$ or $n!$? (Wondering)

The factorial? How can we see that? (Wondering)
 
  • #10
mathmari said:
The factorial? How can we see that?

A couple of years ago someone explained it here. (Clapping)
 
  • #11
I like Serena said:
A couple of years ago someone explained it here. (Clapping)

Ooh yes! (Tmi)(Blush) Thank you very much! (Yes)
 

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