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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi all,

Can anyone tell me whether the counterterms introduced in renormalized perturbation theory (see e.g. Chapter 10 of Peskin and Schroeder) have any physical interpretation? In particular, are they taken to model the self-interactions that take us from a 'bare' to a 'dressed' particle?

Thanks a lot!

Can anyone tell me whether the counterterms introduced in renormalized perturbation theory (see e.g. Chapter 10 of Peskin and Schroeder) have any physical interpretation? In particular, are they taken to model the self-interactions that take us from a 'bare' to a 'dressed' particle?

Thanks a lot!