DmitryS
- 36
- 5
A good one to everyone.
My previous post on this subject here on the forum was a fiasco. I’d like to apologize to everyone who did their best to comment and got ignored by me. In defence, I could tell you I had really little time to spend on discussion, and just overlooked the explanations that seemed irrelevant (why they seemed irrelevant, I will tell you at the end of this).
Before we get to the point, I will kindly ask you to comment having considered this text carefully, because every word here has been contemplated on and well-weighed. I have come up with a better explication of how I see this problem, namely why I don’t think the model of the light clock works.
I will consider the ‘stationary’ and ‘moving’ frames sliding relatively to one another along x/x’ lines called respectively O and O’, and so are the points of origin of the coordinate systems.
1. My first point is again the photon count argument that we didn’t have the opportunity to discuss properly. If the angle arccos(v/c) embraces N photons in O, the same quantity falls within the angle π/2 in O’. The photon sensor grid located to the ‘right’ of the sphere of light will catch fewer photons for O’ than for O.
2. Another point is something I came up with after the previous thread got locked. Let’s consider how we recalculate angles within the Lorentzian context.
For O which we consider stationary the photon slides along the line of inclination arccos(v/c). For O’, the fixed angle of the trajectory α is transformed into α' according to this equation:
sin^2(α') = (sin^2(α))/(1-(v^2/c^2)cos(α)),
and it is not the same as the transform for the angle of trajectory resulting from a composition of motions. The trajectory angle α'' will be transformed as
sin(α'') = (sin(α))/γ(1-(v/c)cos(α)).
Now, the question is, is there a non-trivial situation when α'' = α'?
It all comes down to the quadratic equation with respect to cos(α):
((v^4/c^4) – 2(v^2/c^2))cos^2(α) + (2v/c) cos(α) – (v^2/c^2)=0.
Unfortunately, this equation has a solution, and it’s not α = 0. For this angle, the ray of light originating from x=0, t = 0 and ending at x=x_1, t=t_1, in O’ will originate from x’=0, t’ = 0 and end at x’= -x _1 (its trajectory will be inclined in O’ to the opposite side), t’=t_1.
Within the context of the thought experiment which affirms the relativity of simultaneity, we can set up a different thought experiment which testifies to the opposite.
3. Yet another objection to the light clock scenario is even more interesting – I only recently came up with it. In the light clock scenario, we are considering a singular photon emitting from O at an angle arccsos(v/c). Instead, we can consider a flat wave of light whose infinitely wide front is inclined to x at (π/2 – arccos(v/c)). We can see that the ‘top’ leg of this front will cross the horizontal line y = ct/γ at the point where t’= t/γ, while its ‘bottom’ leg crosses the x axis at the point where t’ = 0 – and forever so. No matter how much of t time passes, the crossings of the wave front with the horizontal planes will have the same t’ coordinates, each one individual at its own level of y.
Thus, the front which will never fully cross the x axis will cross x’ momentarily, and that corresponds to the transform of arccos(α) to π/2 or arcsin(π/2 - α) to zero: the front of the light wave for an O’ observer should be seen rising vertically.
That is to say, what takes an infinite amount of time in O happens in O' momentarily. Thus, we come to this seeming contradiction:
1. Time t elapsing in O corresponds to time t/γ elapsing in O'; and
2. Any however large amount of t elapsing in O corresponds to Δt’=0 in O'.
The contradiction as has been said is only a seeming one, since Item 1 speaks of time t' measured for a specific location, while Item 2 speaks of the situation in O' at large. In 1, we state that there's a 'time wave' of t' in O' as observed by O, and for any specific location the resulting time t' elapsed follows from the composition of motion of an O' observer and said 'time wave', while in 2 we're dealing with the problem of an ultimate composition of the 'time wave' and O' motion which should result in a set of synchronized clocks for O' (universally synchronized time).
Marrying these two statements, that is, aspiring to the above ultimate composition of the motion of O’ and the ‘time wave’ represents the real problem, since there's no mathematics describing this transition: the Lorentz transforms describe the result but not the transition itself, as for the transition we will have to operate with infinites and bump into singularities (the asymptotes of the velocity composition formula).
Thus, the problem I'm describing cannot be dismissed as a case of aberration, as it is the definition of aberration which is problematic within this context that we are talking about.
My previous post on this subject here on the forum was a fiasco. I’d like to apologize to everyone who did their best to comment and got ignored by me. In defence, I could tell you I had really little time to spend on discussion, and just overlooked the explanations that seemed irrelevant (why they seemed irrelevant, I will tell you at the end of this).
Before we get to the point, I will kindly ask you to comment having considered this text carefully, because every word here has been contemplated on and well-weighed. I have come up with a better explication of how I see this problem, namely why I don’t think the model of the light clock works.
I will consider the ‘stationary’ and ‘moving’ frames sliding relatively to one another along x/x’ lines called respectively O and O’, and so are the points of origin of the coordinate systems.
1. My first point is again the photon count argument that we didn’t have the opportunity to discuss properly. If the angle arccos(v/c) embraces N photons in O, the same quantity falls within the angle π/2 in O’. The photon sensor grid located to the ‘right’ of the sphere of light will catch fewer photons for O’ than for O.
2. Another point is something I came up with after the previous thread got locked. Let’s consider how we recalculate angles within the Lorentzian context.
For O which we consider stationary the photon slides along the line of inclination arccos(v/c). For O’, the fixed angle of the trajectory α is transformed into α' according to this equation:
sin^2(α') = (sin^2(α))/(1-(v^2/c^2)cos(α)),
and it is not the same as the transform for the angle of trajectory resulting from a composition of motions. The trajectory angle α'' will be transformed as
sin(α'') = (sin(α))/γ(1-(v/c)cos(α)).
Now, the question is, is there a non-trivial situation when α'' = α'?
It all comes down to the quadratic equation with respect to cos(α):
((v^4/c^4) – 2(v^2/c^2))cos^2(α) + (2v/c) cos(α) – (v^2/c^2)=0.
Unfortunately, this equation has a solution, and it’s not α = 0. For this angle, the ray of light originating from x=0, t = 0 and ending at x=x_1, t=t_1, in O’ will originate from x’=0, t’ = 0 and end at x’= -x _1 (its trajectory will be inclined in O’ to the opposite side), t’=t_1.
Within the context of the thought experiment which affirms the relativity of simultaneity, we can set up a different thought experiment which testifies to the opposite.
3. Yet another objection to the light clock scenario is even more interesting – I only recently came up with it. In the light clock scenario, we are considering a singular photon emitting from O at an angle arccsos(v/c). Instead, we can consider a flat wave of light whose infinitely wide front is inclined to x at (π/2 – arccos(v/c)). We can see that the ‘top’ leg of this front will cross the horizontal line y = ct/γ at the point where t’= t/γ, while its ‘bottom’ leg crosses the x axis at the point where t’ = 0 – and forever so. No matter how much of t time passes, the crossings of the wave front with the horizontal planes will have the same t’ coordinates, each one individual at its own level of y.
Thus, the front which will never fully cross the x axis will cross x’ momentarily, and that corresponds to the transform of arccos(α) to π/2 or arcsin(π/2 - α) to zero: the front of the light wave for an O’ observer should be seen rising vertically.
That is to say, what takes an infinite amount of time in O happens in O' momentarily. Thus, we come to this seeming contradiction:
1. Time t elapsing in O corresponds to time t/γ elapsing in O'; and
2. Any however large amount of t elapsing in O corresponds to Δt’=0 in O'.
The contradiction as has been said is only a seeming one, since Item 1 speaks of time t' measured for a specific location, while Item 2 speaks of the situation in O' at large. In 1, we state that there's a 'time wave' of t' in O' as observed by O, and for any specific location the resulting time t' elapsed follows from the composition of motion of an O' observer and said 'time wave', while in 2 we're dealing with the problem of an ultimate composition of the 'time wave' and O' motion which should result in a set of synchronized clocks for O' (universally synchronized time).
Marrying these two statements, that is, aspiring to the above ultimate composition of the motion of O’ and the ‘time wave’ represents the real problem, since there's no mathematics describing this transition: the Lorentz transforms describe the result but not the transition itself, as for the transition we will have to operate with infinites and bump into singularities (the asymptotes of the velocity composition formula).
Thus, the problem I'm describing cannot be dismissed as a case of aberration, as it is the definition of aberration which is problematic within this context that we are talking about.