Kevin_Axion
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I was playing around with an infinite series recently and I noticed something peculiar, I was hoping somebody could clarify something for me.
Suppose we have an infinite series of the form:
\sum^_{n = 1}^{\infty} 1/n^\phi
where \phi is some even natural number, it appears that it is always convergent to a rational multiple of \pi.
Now if we take this series and change it slightly:
\sum^_{n = 1}^{\infty} 1/n^\alpha
where \alpha is some even natural number, it appears that it is always convergent to the Riemann Zeta Function evaluated at \alpha i.e. \zeta(\alpha).
Can someone explain the relationship expressed in these infinite series?
EDIT: What's wrong with my LaTeX for the infinite series?
Suppose we have an infinite series of the form:
\sum^_{n = 1}^{\infty} 1/n^\phi
where \phi is some even natural number, it appears that it is always convergent to a rational multiple of \pi.
Now if we take this series and change it slightly:
\sum^_{n = 1}^{\infty} 1/n^\alpha
where \alpha is some even natural number, it appears that it is always convergent to the Riemann Zeta Function evaluated at \alpha i.e. \zeta(\alpha).
Can someone explain the relationship expressed in these infinite series?
EDIT: What's wrong with my LaTeX for the infinite series?
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