ROC of z-transform (derivative)

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The discussion centers on the z-transform of a sequence and its derivative, specifically why the region of convergence (ROC) remains unchanged when differentiating the z-transform. It is noted that the z-transform of nx[n] is given by -zdX(z)/dz, and the ROC remains the same due to the analyticity of X(z) within that region. Some interpretations suggest that multiplying by a linearly increasing sequence does not affect the ROC because of the z^{-n} factor in the z-transform. Additionally, it is mentioned that differentiation does not introduce new poles or zeros, only alters their order, which raises questions about the nature of X(z) as a ratio of polynomials. Overall, the discussion highlights the complexities of understanding the implications of differentiation in z-transforms and the conditions under which the ROC is preserved.
jashua
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I have a question about the z-transform:

In the (Oppenheim's Signals and Systems) book it is written:

If the z-transform of x[n] is X(z) with ROC=R, then the z-transform of nx[n] is -zdX(z)/dz with the same ROC.

I don't understand why the ROC remains unchanged. Some books say "it follows from the fact that X(z) is analytic", some other books say "note that Laurent z-transform is differentiable within the ROC". But these reasons are not clear to me at all!

Any help will be appreciated.
 
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I have found some other interpretations about my question:

1) Multiplication of x[n] by a linearly increasing sequence doesn't change the ROC, since we have z^{-n} factor in the z-transform.

2) There is no extra pole-zero introduced by differentiation; only their order can change.

The first one makes sense; however still it is not clear since, for example, if z=e^{jw}, then there is no decaying exponential in the z-transform.

The second one brings some other questions: Do we always have to think X(z) as a ratio of polynomials? Why don't we have extra pole-zero after differentiation?
 
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