Rudin's Proof of Lim n->∞ (p^(1/n)) = 1

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around Rudin's proof that the limit of \( p^{(1/n)} \) as \( n \) approaches infinity equals 1. Participants explore the application of the binomial theorem in this proof, particularly focusing on specific inequalities and terms in the expansion.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the inequalities presented in Rudin's proof, specifically questioning the application of the binomial theorem.
  • Another participant clarifies that the inequalities are derived from terms in the binomial expansion, suggesting that the actual expansion contains more terms, thus supporting the inequalities.
  • A further reply attempts to refine the understanding of the inequalities, indicating that the expression \( (1 + x_n)^n \) can be expanded to include higher-order terms that approach zero as \( x_n \) approaches zero.
  • There is a mention of the second binomial coefficient \( n(n-1)/2 \) and its role in the expansion, with emphasis on the positivity of the terms involved.
  • One participant expresses feelings of inadequacy regarding their understanding of the material, indicating a personal struggle with the concepts discussed.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the clarity of Rudin's proof or the specific inequalities derived from the binomial theorem. There are multiple viewpoints regarding the interpretation and application of these mathematical concepts.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the positivity of \( x_n \) are made, which may affect the validity of the inequalities discussed. The discussion also reflects uncertainty regarding the completeness of the binomial expansion in the context of the proof.

samspotting
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Rudin's proof of lim n-> inf (p^(1/n)) = 1

1+n*x_n <= (1 + x_n)^n = o

I don't see it from the binomial theorem, which is what he says that is from.

He also does things with the binomial theorem like:

(1+x_n)^n >= ((n(n-1)) / 2) *x_n^2

I'm not sure what he did to get these two inequalities.
 
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Those are terms in the expansion given by the binomial theorem. Since there are more terms in the actual expansion, it's an inequality.
 
samspotting said:
Rudin's proof of lim n-> inf (p^(1/n)) = 1

1+n*x_n <= (1 + x_n)^n = o
1+ n*x_n <= (1+ x_n)^n- o perhaps, not "= o". (1+ x_n)^n, by the binomial theorem that you mention in your title, says that (1+ x_n)^n= 1+ n x_n+ terms of higher order in x_n which will go to 0 as x_n goes to 0: o(x_n) or "small o". Assuming that x_n is positive, all those missing terms in the binomial expansion are positive and so the first two terms are less than or equal to the whole thing.

I don't see it from the binomial theorem, which is what he says that is from.

He also does things with the binomial theorem like:

(1+x_n)^n >= ((n(n-1)) / 2) *x_n^2

I'm not sure what he did to get these two inequalities.
n(n-1)/2 is the second binomial coefficient nC2= n!(2!(n-2)!)= n(n-1)/2. (1+ x_n)^n= 1+ n x_n+ (n(n-2)/2) x_n^2+ higher terms. Again, assuming that x_n is positive, the 'whole thing' is greater than or equal to just one term.
 
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Thanks. I feel pretty stupid lol, but its been a while since I've seen that thing.
 

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