Apparently, there are two different routes to get to quantum field theory from single-particle quantum mechanics: (I'm going to use nonrelativistic quantum mechanics for this discussion. I think the same issues apply in relativistic quantum mechanics.)
Route 1: Many-particle quantum mechanics
Start with single-particle QM, with the Schrödinger equation: [itex]- \frac{1}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi = i \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi[/itex]
- Now, extend it to many (initially, noninteracting) particles: [itex]\Psi(\vec{r_1}, \vec{r_2}, ..., \vec{r_n}, t)[/itex]
- Introduce creation and annihilation operators to get you from (a properly symmetrized) [itex]n[/itex]-particle state to an [itex]n+1[/itex]-particle state, and vice-verse.
Route 2: Second quantization
Once again, start with the single-particle wave function.
- Instead of viewing [itex]\psi[/itex] as a wave function, you view it as a classical field.
- Describe that field using a Lagrangian density [itex]\mathcal{L} = i \psi^* \dot{psi} - \frac{1}{2m}|\nabla \psi|^2[/itex]
- Derive the canonical momentum using [itex]\pi = \dfrac{\partial}{\partial \dot{\psi}}[/itex]
- Impose the commutation rule: [itex][\pi(\vec{r}), \psi(\vec{r'})] = -i \delta^3(\vec{r'} - \vec{r})[/itex]
Conceptually, these routes are very different. The first one is just many-particle quantum mechanics re-expressed in terms of creation and annihilation operators. The second is field theory in which the field is quantized. Is it just a coincidence that the result is the same, or is there some deeper reason?