Self consistent spin wave theory

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Petar Mali
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[tex]\hat{H}=\hat{H}_0+S\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}(\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j^++\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}<br /> ^+_i\hat{a}_i)-\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}[\frac{1}{2}(\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j)+\hat{a}<br /> ^+_i\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j][/tex]

[tex]\hat{a}_i,\hat{a}_i^+,\hat{b}_j,\hat{b}_j^+[/tex] - bose operators

SCSW - theory

[tex]\hat{H}=\hat{H}_0+\hat{H}_2+\hat{H}_4^{SC}[/tex]

[tex]\hat{H}_2=S\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}(\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j^++\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}<br /> ^+_i\hat{a}_i)[/tex]

How is [tex]\hat{H}^{SC}_{4}[/tex] defined?

Term[tex]-\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}[\frac{1}{2}(\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j\hat{b}_j+\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j)+\hat{a}<br /> ^+_i\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\hat{b}_j][/tex] represent magnon - magnon interractions.
 
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In textbook which I had

[tex]\hat{H}_4^{SC}=-\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}[\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i(\langle<br /> \hat{b}^+_j\hat{b}_j\rangle+\langle\hat{b}^+_j\hat{a}^+_i\rangle)+\hat{b}^+_j\hat{b}_j(\langle\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i\rangle+<br /> \langle\hat{b}_j\hat{a}_i\rangle)+\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j(\langle\hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j^+\rangle+\langle\hat{b}_j^+\hat{b}_j\rangle)<br /> +\frac{1}{2}\hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i^+\langle\hat{b}_j^+\hat{a}_i\rangle+\frac{1}{2}\hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i^+\langle \hat{b}_j^+\hat{a}_i<br /> \rangle+\frac{1}{2}\hat{b}_j^+\hat{a}_i(\langle \hat{b}_j\hat{b}_j\rangle+\frac{1}{2}\langle\hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i\rangle)][/tex]

Can you explain me this?
 
Any help?

For example

[tex]\hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j^+\hat{b}_j=\hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i\langle \hat{b}_j^+\hat{b}_j \rangle+\hat{b}_j^+\hat{b}_j\langle \hat{a}_i^+\hat{a}_i \rangle+\hat{a}_i\hat{b}^+_j\langle \hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j \rangle+\hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j \langle\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j^+\rangle+\hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j^+\langle \hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j\rangle+\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j\langle \hat{a}_i^+\hat{b}_j^+ \rangle[/tex]

Correct? Can you explain me this? Thanks!
 
This is more like a Bogoliubov's method.
 
I think that is neither of that!
 
This is some kind of approximation.

Maybe approximation of identity

[tex]\hat{A}\hat{B}=\hat{A}\langle \hat{B} \rangle+\langle\hat{A}\rangle \hat{B}-\langle\hat{A}\hat{B}\rangle+(\hat{A}-\langle \hat{A}\rangle)(\hat{B}-\langle \hat{B}\rangle)[/tex]

?

[tex]\hat{A}\hat{B}=\hat{A}\langle \hat{B} \rangle+\langle\hat{A}\rangle \hat{B}-\langle\hat{A}\hat{B}\rangle+(\hat{A}-\langle \hat{A}\rangle)(\hat{B}-\langle \hat{B}\rangle)[/tex]

[tex]\hat{C}\hat{D}=\hat{C}\langle \hat{D} \rangle+\langle\hat{C}\rangle \hat{D}-\langle\hat{C}\hat{D}\rangle+(\hat{C}-\langle \hat{C}\rangle)(\hat{D}-\langle \hat{D}\rangle)[/tex]

So

[tex]\hat{A}\hat{B}\hat{C}\hat{D}=?[/tex]

Anybody knows?
 
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This is a method of mean field theory.

It is used for the weak coupled superconductor.

if there is only <a+a>, that is Hartree-Fock approximation.
If there contains <a+a+> or <aa>, that is mean field theory.
 
I made a mistake in Hamiltonian

It looks like

[tex]\hat{H}_4^{SC}=-\sum_{i,j}I_{i,j}\{\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i(\langle \hat{b}^+_j\hat{b}_j\rangle+\langle<br /> \hat{a}^+_i\hat{b}^+_j\rangle)+\hat{b}^+_j\hat{b}_j(\langle<br /> \hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}_i\rangle+\langle\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j\rangle)+\hat{a}_i\hat{b}_j(\langle<br /> \hat{a}^+_i\hat{b}^+_j\rangle+\langle\hat{b}^+_j\hat{b}_j\rangle)+\frac{1}{2}\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}^+_i\langle\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\rangle+\frac{1}{2}\hat{b}_j\hat{b}_j\langle\hat{a}_i\hat{b}<br /> ^+_j\rangle+\frac{1}{2}\hat{a}_i\hat{b}^+_j(\langle\hat{a}^+_i\hat{a}^+_i\rangle+\langle\hat{b}_j\hat{b}_j\rangle)\}[/tex]