Serious second mean value theorem for integration

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The discussion centers on proving a serious second mean value theorem for integration, which states that for an integrable function f and a monotonic function φ, there exists a point ξ in the interval (a, b) such that a specific integral relationship holds. Participants are seeking proof for this claim, as well as references to calculus books or academic publications that might cover it. A related, weaker formulation of the theorem is mentioned, which can be proven using integration by parts and the first mean value theorem. The original claim was found on Wikipedia, but no proof was provided there. The conversation highlights a gap in accessible resources for this advanced theorem.
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The claim:

If f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} is integrable, and \phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} is monotonic (hence continuous almost everywhere), then there exists \xi\in ]a,b[ such that
<br /> \int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \big(\lim_{x\to a^+}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \big(\lim_{x\to b^-}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx<br />

Who knows how to prove that?

Or who knows a serious book on calculus, that would cover this? Or a publication that could be found in university libraries?

I found the claim from Wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem But no proof.

I don't remember where, but somewhere some years ago I found a website, that gave a proof for a weaker formulation of this theorem. It goes like this:

If f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} is continuous, and \phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} is differentiable such that \phi&#039;\geq 0, then there exists \xi\in [a,b] such that
<br /> \int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \phi(a) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \phi(b) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx<br />
This can be proven by first substituting
<br /> f(x) = D_x\int\limits_a^x f(u)du<br />
then integrating by parts, and then using the first mean value theorem.
 
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You first prove ##\displaystyle{\int_a^b }f(x)\phi(x)\,dx = f(\xi) \displaystyle{\int_a^b}\phi(x)\,dx## and apply partial integration and the fundamental theorem of calculus.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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