Could somebody explain with due brevity why/how the set of p-adic integers is homeomorphic to the Cantor set less one point for any prime p? This is a quote from Wikipedia:Cantor Set: "The Cantor set is also homeomorphic to the p-adic integers, and, if one point is removed from it, to the p-adic numbers." Can somebody explain this simply, I don'y really get p-adic #'s. P.S. Not homework, don't want a proof, just understanding of it.