Set Theory Question. Trouble defining a function precisely.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on establishing a bijection between the power set P(A) of a finite set A={1,...,n} and the Cartesian product Xn, where X={0,1}. The function f: P(A) -> Xn is defined such that for any subset A0 of A, f(A0) produces a tuple (x1,...,xn) in Xn, where xi=1 if i is in A0 and xi=0 otherwise. The main concern is ensuring that the function f is well-defined, which involves demonstrating that each element of P(A) maps to a unique element in Xn and vice versa, thereby confirming the bijection.

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Let A={1,...,n}. Show that there is a bijection of P(A) with the cartesian product Xn, where X is the two element set X={0,1} and P(A) is the power set of A.


Below is the start of my proof. I just want to make sure that my function "makes sense." Proof: Let A={1,...n}, and X={0,1}. Define f: P(A) -> Xn by f(A0)=(x1,...,xn), where A0 is a subset of A (and therefore an element of P(A)) and (x1,...,xn) is the element of Xn such that xi=1 if i ε A0 and xi=0 is i is not an element of A0...In the next step, I let A0=A1, and show that their image in Xn is the same. I suppose my question is really "how do I ensure f is well-defined?"
 
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I'd just take an arbitrary element of P(A) and show that it maps to a single element in Xn, then take an arbitrary element in Xn and show exactly one element of P(A) is mapped there. That's enough right?
 
Given any subset, A, of A, in P(A), assign to every member, x, of A the value "1" if x is in S, "0" if not. That assigns a member of Xn to every member of P(A).
 

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