michaeldoe
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I have found the following proof of remainder term for midpoint rule of integration:
and I'm trying to understand the part of it where author is applying MVTI to composition of functions ##f''(\xi_i(x))## and move it out of integral sign as ##f''(\xi_i)##. If we solve Taylor's series for this composition we get ##f''(\xi_i(x)) = \frac{2(f(x) - f(c_i) - f'(c_i)(x - c_i))}{(x - c_i)^2}## which have the problem at ##c_i##. The composition ##f''(\xi_i(x))## is discontinuous here. ##\frac{0}{0}## case. So, why is it correct to apply MVTI?
I should say that I'm learning math by myself, as a hobby. And what I've found then ... I tired of controversial information in different resources actually, so I'm here.
In a different resources I have seen different definitions of the Mean Value Theorem for Integrals. Say we have ##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) g(x) dx##. In some resources it's written as neither function ##f(x)## nor ##g(x)## should be continuous to apply this theorem, but both ##f(x)## and ##g(x)## should be integrable and ##g(x)## shouldn't to change sign. Example of such definitions are typically can be found in Russian literature like Fikhtengol'ts Calculus, in RU Wikipedia page of this theorem and also some teachers saying different definitions of it.
And in some resources I have seen different definition which said that ##f(x)## should be continuous strictly and ##g(x)## should be integrable and shouldn't change sign. For example EN Wikipedia page of this theorem, OpenStax Calculus book, Stewart Calculus and others.
In this case, in the proof the ##f(x)## is ##f''(\xi_i(x))## which is not continuous by its definition (fraction above) and ##g(x) = (x - c_i)^2##.
Well, should ##f(x)## be strictly continuous in order to apply MVT-I theorem and move this ##f''(\xi_i(x))## out of integral sign as ##f''(\xi_i)## or not finally?
and I'm trying to understand the part of it where author is applying MVTI to composition of functions ##f''(\xi_i(x))## and move it out of integral sign as ##f''(\xi_i)##. If we solve Taylor's series for this composition we get ##f''(\xi_i(x)) = \frac{2(f(x) - f(c_i) - f'(c_i)(x - c_i))}{(x - c_i)^2}## which have the problem at ##c_i##. The composition ##f''(\xi_i(x))## is discontinuous here. ##\frac{0}{0}## case. So, why is it correct to apply MVTI?
I should say that I'm learning math by myself, as a hobby. And what I've found then ... I tired of controversial information in different resources actually, so I'm here.
In a different resources I have seen different definitions of the Mean Value Theorem for Integrals. Say we have ##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) g(x) dx##. In some resources it's written as neither function ##f(x)## nor ##g(x)## should be continuous to apply this theorem, but both ##f(x)## and ##g(x)## should be integrable and ##g(x)## shouldn't to change sign. Example of such definitions are typically can be found in Russian literature like Fikhtengol'ts Calculus, in RU Wikipedia page of this theorem and also some teachers saying different definitions of it.
And in some resources I have seen different definition which said that ##f(x)## should be continuous strictly and ##g(x)## should be integrable and shouldn't change sign. For example EN Wikipedia page of this theorem, OpenStax Calculus book, Stewart Calculus and others.
In this case, in the proof the ##f(x)## is ##f''(\xi_i(x))## which is not continuous by its definition (fraction above) and ##g(x) = (x - c_i)^2##.
Well, should ##f(x)## be strictly continuous in order to apply MVT-I theorem and move this ##f''(\xi_i(x))## out of integral sign as ##f''(\xi_i)## or not finally?
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