Show extremum of the Entropy is a maximum

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that the extremum of entropy for a probability distribution is a maximum. The entropy is defined by the equation S = -k_B ∑ p(i) ln(p(i)), and the original poster has identified an extremum S' = k_B ln(N). They seek to establish that S' - S > 0, given the constraint that the sum of probabilities equals one.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of Taylor series to analyze the second-order term of S. There is also discussion about the implications of boundary conditions where one or more p(i) are zero, and how this affects the entropy calculation. Some suggest using induction to analyze cases with fewer probabilities.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with various approaches being suggested. Participants are questioning the assumptions around boundary conditions and exploring different mathematical strategies to demonstrate the maximum nature of the entropy. There is no explicit consensus yet, but several productive lines of reasoning are being developed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the boundary of the probability space is larger than initially considered, as it includes cases where at least one p(i) is zero. This introduces complexity into the analysis of the extremum.

dipole
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Homework Statement



The Entropy of a probability distribution is given by,

[itex]S = -k_B \sum _{i=1}^N p(i)\ln{p(i)}[/itex]

I've shown that the extremum of such a function is given by,

[itex]S' = k_B \ln{N}[/itex] (which is a positive quantity)

Now I want to show that this is a maximum by showing that

[itex]S' - S = k_B \ln{N} + \sum _{i=1}^N p(i)\ln{p(i)} > 0[/itex]



Homework Equations



The [itex]p(i)[/itex]'s are constrained by

[itex]\Sum_{i=1}^N p(i) =1[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm kind of stuck here. The second term is inherently negative, so it's not a priori obvious that [itex]S' - S > 0[/itex]. I would probably want to take the ratio and show [itex]\frac{S'}{S} \geq 1[/itex] but I'm not sure how to do this.

Any ideas?
 
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I suggest writing a Taylor series for [itex]S[/itex] in terms of the [itex]p_i[/itex] and looking at the second-order term.
 
dipole said:

Homework Statement



The Entropy of a probability distribution is given by,

[itex]S = -k_B \sum _{i=1}^N p(i)\ln{p(i)}[/itex]

I've shown that the extremum of such a function is given by,

[itex]S' = k_B \ln{N}[/itex] (which is a positive quantity)

Now I want to show that this is a maximum by showing that

[itex]S' - S = k_B \ln{N} + \sum _{i=1}^N p(i)\ln{p(i)} > 0[/itex]



Homework Equations



The [itex]p(i)[/itex]'s are constrained by

[itex]\Sum_{i=1}^N p(i) =1[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm kind of stuck here. The second term is inherently negative, so it's not a priori obvious that [itex]S' - S > 0[/itex]. I would probably want to take the ratio and show [itex]\frac{S'}{S} \geq 1[/itex] but I'm not sure how to do this.

Any ideas?

You only found one extremum which has a positive entropy (using Lagrange multipliers, I presume). The only other place you could have an extremum is on the boundary. The boundary of your set of p(i) would be the case where one of the p(i) is 1 and the rest are 0. What's the entropy there? You have to think about limits, since log(0) is undefined.
 
Dick said:
The boundary of your set of p(i) would be the case where one of the p(i) is 1 and the rest are 0.

Hello Dick!

The boundary of the space in question is actually much bigger than this - it's the set of points for which at least one p(i) is zero. So doing it this way, some work remains.
 
Oxvillian said:
Hello Dick!

The boundary of the space in question is actually much bigger than this - it's the set of points for which at least one p(i) is zero. So doing it this way, some work remains.

Good point. But if you fix one of your N p(i) to be zero. Then you are in the N-1 case with the remaining p(i). Suggests you use induction. In the case N=2, the boundary is the two points (p(1),p(2)) equal to (1,0) or (0,1).
 
Dick said:
Good point. But if you fix one of your N p(i) to be zero. Then you are in the N-1 case with the remaining p(i). Suggests you use induction. In the case N=2, the boundary is the two points (p(1),p(2)) equal to (1,0) or (0,1).

Correct :smile:

But (at the risk of giving away the plot), I think the easiest way to demonstrate the global nature of the max is to notice that you can always increase the entropy by transferring probability from somewhere with a large p(i) to somewhere with a small p(i).
 
Oxvillian said:
Correct :smile:

But (at the risk of giving away the plot), I think the easiest way to demonstrate the global nature of the max is to notice that you can always increase the entropy by transferring probability from somewhere with a large p(i) to somewhere with a small p(i).

That is a simpler way to look at it.
 

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