Show Rationals and Integers are not Isomorphic

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SUMMARY

The discussion establishes that the groups \textbf{Q} (rationals) and \textbf{R} (integers) are not isomorphic under addition. Key points include the necessity of a bijective homomorphism for isomorphism, which fails due to the infinite density of rationals between any two integers. The proof demonstrates that any assumed homomorphism cannot maintain the required properties, confirming the non-isomorphic nature of these groups.

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Homework Statement


Show that the groups \textbf{Q} and \textbf{R} are not isomorphic (both under addition).

This was already answered before https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=294687", but using different theory (generators and cyclic groups). We haven't covered that stuff in class yet. See below.

Homework Equations


Two groups, G and H, are NOT isomorphic if:
1) |G| \neq |H|
2) Let \varphi be a map from G to H. Then G, H are not isomorphic if for some x \in \textbf{G}, |x| \neq |\varphi(x)|
3) G is abelian, H is not abelian or vice versa.

Two groups are isomorphic iff there exists \varphi:\textbf{G} \rightarrow \textbf{H} s.t:
1) \varphi is a homomorphism.
2) \varphi is a bijection.

Homomorphism:
\varphi(xy) = \varphi(x)\varphi(y).

The Attempt at a Solution


I know it is possible to set up a bijection from Z to Q because Q is countable (isomorphic to N) and so is Z. Then the solution must be that no homomorphism exists from Z to Q.

Proof
p,q are rational. p < q. a,b are integers. \varphi:{\bftext{Q} \rightarrow \bftext{R}, assume it is a homomorphism.
If \varphi(p)=a, \varphi(q) = b, then \varphi(p + q)=\varphi(p)+\varphi(q) = a + b. But consider p + (q - p)/2. This must map to an integer in between a and b. Why? (I'm not sure, i'll have to investigate this rigorously). Since there are finitely many integers between a and b, but infinitely many rationals between p and q, \varphi cannot be bijective. Which means that there is no homomorphic map from the rationals to the integers that is also bijective. So Q cannot be isomorphic to R.

Is this sufficient?
 
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It's a little sketchy. Let f be an isomorphism Q->Z. Let p=f^(-1)(1). Then what is f(p/2)? It must be an integer that when added to itself gives 1.
 
Yeah got it.

If f^{-1}(1) = p, then \varphi(\frac{p}{2}+\frac{p}{2})=1 but that implies 0&lt;\varphi(\frac{p}{2})&lt;1 which is impossible since no integer exists between 0 and 1.

Thanks man.
 

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