Proving Isomorphism between Lie Algebras

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A mapping \varphi from Lie algebra \mathfrak{g} to \mathfrak{h} is a homomorphism if it preserves the Lie bracket, meaning \varphi([x,y]) = [\varphi(x), \varphi(y)] for all x, y in \mathfrak{g}. For \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{h} to be isomorphic, there must exist a bijective homomorphism whose inverse is also a homomorphism. The proposed mapping \varphi sends the basis vectors E, F, and G of \mathfrak{g} to specific 3x3 matrices in \mathfrak{h}, and it is necessary to verify that this mapping is linear and respects the commutator. The discussion also explores finding a non-isomorphic Lie algebra of dimension 3, suggesting the diagonal matrices with a trivial Lie bracket as a potential example. The conversation emphasizes the need for clear definitions and proofs to establish the properties of the mappings and the Lie algebras involved.
  • #31
micromass said:
Try a very trivial Lie bracket. What's the easiest Lie bracket around??

The one that's identically 0
 
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  • #32
Ted123 said:
The one that's identically 0

Indeed!

Note that this is exactly the Lie algebra of the diagonal 3x3 matrices!
 
  • #33
micromass said:
Indeed!

Note that this is exactly the Lie algebra of the diagonal 3x3 matrices!

So D_3(\mathbb{C}), the space of all 3x3 diagonal matrices with entries in \mathbb{C} with lie bracket [X,Y]= 0 for all X,Y\in D_3(\mathbb{C}) is not isomorphic to \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{h}?

When the question says 'show that your example meets the required conditions' does this mean I have to prove that it has dimension 3 and prove that it is not isomorphic? Would showing that a map from \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{h} defined by something aren't homomorphisms suffice?
 
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  • #34
Ted123 said:
So D_3(\mathbb{C}), the space of all 3x3 diagonal matrices with entries in \mathbb{C} with lie bracket [X,Y]= 0 for all X,Y\in D_3(\mathbb{C}) is not isomorphic to \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{h}?

When the question says 'show that your example meets the required conditions' does this mean I have to prove that it has dimension 3 and prove that it is not isomorphic?

Yes.

Would showing that a map from \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{h} defined by something aren't homomorphisms suffice?
Won't work. There will certainly exist homormorphisms between those Lie algebra's. But there might not exist any isomorphism.

So, take \varphi an isomorphism and try to deduce a contradiction.
 
  • #35
micromass said:
Yes.


Won't work. There will certainly exist homormorphisms between those Lie algebra's. But there might not exist any isomorphism.

So, take \varphi an isomorphism and try to deduce a contradiction.

So can I just define mappings \varphi : \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{g} and \varphi : \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{h} in any way, assume they are isomorphisms and contradict this by showing the lie bracket isn't preseved?

But if I did this, I could do this with lie algebras which are isomorphic, assume I have a mapping that is an isomorphism (even though it isn't) and contradict the assumption. I need to show that there exist no isomorphisms at all between the lie algebras don't I?
 
  • #36
Ted123 said:
assume I have a mapping that is an isomorphism (even though it isn't) and contradict the assumption.

Yes, but you won't be able to do this with Lie algebra's which are isomorphic.
 
  • #37
micromass said:
Yes, but you won't be able to do this with Lie algebra's which are isomorphic.

So if I define \varphi : \mathfrak{f} \to \mathfrak{h} by: \varphi \left( \begin{bmatrix} a & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & b & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & c \end{bmatrix} \right) = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & a & c \\ 0 & 0 & b \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} how do I show the lie bracket [X,Y]=0 for all X,Y \in \mathfrak{f} isn't satisfied?
 
  • #38
No, you can't take a specific \varphi.

What you do is take an arbitrary homomorphism \varphi and assume that it is an isomorphism. You then show a contradiction.

You know nothing about \varphi except that it's an isomorphism.
 
  • #39
micromass said:
No, you can't take a specific \varphi.

What you do is take an arbitrary homomorphism \varphi and assume that it is an isomorphism. You then show a contradiction.

You know nothing about \varphi except that it's an isomorphism.

So if we assume \varphi is an isomorphism.

Then \varphi ([x,y]) = [\varphi (x) , \varphi (y)] for all x,y \in \mathfrak{f} since \varphi is a homomorphism.

I'm not seeing how to use the fact that \varphi is 1-1:

x=y \Rightarrow \varphi (x) = \varphi (y)
 
  • #40
Try to calculate


\varphi [E,F],~\varphi [F,G],~\varphi [E,G]

in several ways. See if you can get a contradiction.
 
  • #41
micromass said:
Try to calculate


\varphi [E,F],~\varphi [F,G],~\varphi [E,G]

in several ways. See if you can get a contradiction.

Are we talking about the same E,F,G \in\mathfrak{g} as before?

From the fact that \varphi is a homomorphism, \varphi ([E,F]) = [\varphi (E),\varphi (F)] etc.

I thought I had to do something with diagonal matrices in \mathfrak{f} and show that the lie bracket [x,y]=0 can't be satisfied?
 
  • #42
Ted123 said:
Are we talking about the same E,F,G \in\mathfrak{g} as before?

Yes.

I thought I had to do something with diagonal matrices in \mathfrak{f} and show that the lie bracket [x,y]=0 can't be satisfied?

That works as well.
 
  • #43
micromass said:
Yes.



That works as well.

How am I supposed to calculate \varphi ([E,F]) etc. at all when I don't know what \varphi is?

Also since \mathfrak{g}\cong\mathfrak{h}, if we show \mathfrak{f}\ncong\mathfrak{g} then does that automatically imply that \mathfrak{f}\ncong\mathfrak{h} ?
 
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  • #44
The question on giving an example and showing that the example meets the required conditions is worth very few marks in this exam paper compared to the question on showing \mathfrak{g}\cong\mathfrak{h}.

Isn't there some obvious property that D_3(\mathbb{C}) endowed with lie bracket [X,Y]=0 has that means it cannot be isomorphic to \mathfrak{g} or \mathfrak{h} ?

Can't I just say that since there is a non-trivial Lie bracket in both \mathfrak{g} and \mathfrak{h}, they cannot be isomorphic to \mathfrak{f} since all Lie brackets are trivial in \mathfrak{f} and isomorphisms preserve Lie brackets?

Also for showing that \varphi (aE + bF + cG) = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & a & c \\ 0 & 0 & b \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} is 1-1 is this proof OK:

Letting x = aE+bF+cG \in \mathfrak{g} and y = a'E+b'F+c'G \in \mathfrak{g},

\varphi (x) = \varphi (y) \Rightarrow \begin{bmatrix} 0 & a & c \\ 0 & 0 & b \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & a' & c' \\ 0 & 0 & b' \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}

\Rightarrow aE +bF+cG = a'E + b'F + c'G i.e. x=y

How would I show \varphi is onto?
 
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  • #45
Is this an exam??
 
  • #46
micromass said:
Is this an exam??

Just a past paper but we don't get the solutions you see
 

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