Show That g(y)=proj_x y is a Linear Operator.

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that the mapping g:R^3→R^3 defined by g(y)=proj_x y is a linear operator. The context is linear algebra, specifically focusing on properties of linear transformations and vector spaces.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the nature of the mapping and whether it suffices to show that g is a linear operator by confirming that both y and proj_x y belong to the same vector space. There are inquiries about the implications of the mapping's codomain and whether it indicates that the image of g covers all of R^3.

Discussion Status

Some participants are exploring the definitions of domain and codomain, questioning the equivalence of vector spaces involved. There is a recognition that the projection results in a line in R^3, and some guidance is offered regarding the interpretation of codomain without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

There are ongoing discussions about the definitions of linear operators and vector spaces, with some participants expressing uncertainty about how to prove the relationships between the spaces involved. The original poster seeks clarity on these definitions and their implications for the problem.

nickadams
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Homework Statement


Let x be a fixed nonzero vector in R^3. Show that the mapping g:R^3→R^3 given by g(y)=projxy is a linear operator.

Homework Equations


projxy = [itex]\left(\frac{x\cdot y}{\|x\|}\right)x[/itex]

My book defines linear operator as: Let V be a vector space. A linear operator on V is a linear transformation whose domain and codomain are both V.

The Attempt at a Solution



I know how to show g is a linear transformation but I need help proving that g is a linear operator. Do I need to show y and projxy share the same vector space? If so, how would I go about doing that?


Thanks
 
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x and y are in R^3. The right side is a scalar times x. Doesn't that make it an element of R^3? There's not really much to show here.
 
Dick said:
x and y are in R^3. The right side is a scalar times x. Doesn't that make it an element of R^3? There's not really much to show here.

In the problem statement where it says "g:R^3→R^3" is that enough to tell us that the vector space mapped to by g is R^3? Or just that any element mapped to by g will be in R^3 but that doesn't necessarily mean the set of all mappings made by g equal R^3?

How do you show 2 vector spaces are equivalent usually? I see why the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is R^3, but is there a way to really prove that the vector space of [itex]\left(\frac{x\cdot y}{\|x\|}\right)x[/itex] is R^3 or is it just really obvious?



thanks for your help by the way
 
nickadams said:
In the problem statement where it says "g:R^3→R^3" is that enough to tell us that the vector space mapped to by g is R^3? Or just that any element mapped to by g will be in R^3 but that doesn't necessarily mean the set of all mappings made by g equal R^3?

How do you show 2 vector spaces are equivalent usually? I see why the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is R^3, but is there a way to really prove that the vector space of [itex]\left(\frac{x\cdot y}{\|x\|}\right)x[/itex] is R^3 or is it just really obvious?
thanks for your help by the way

You may be misreading the definition of codomain. It doesn't mean that the image of the map is all of R^3. Since it's a projection, it's certainly not. It's a line in R^3 composed of all of the vectors parallel to x. Look up the exact definition of 'codomain'.
 
Dick said:
You may be misreading the definition of codomain. It doesn't mean that the image of the map is all of R^3. Since it's a projection, it's certainly not. It's a line in R^3 composed of all of the vectors parallel to x. Look up the exact definition of 'codomain'.

Am I correct in saying the domain of domain of g([itex]\vec{y}[/itex]) is the set of all [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]? And the co-domain of g([itex]\vec{y}[/itex])= [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is the set of all [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex]?

And the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is the set of all vectors that can be attained through linear combinations of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]?
And the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is the set of all vectors that can be attained through linear combinations of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex]?

So how can we say the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is equal to the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] if the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is a line extending from [itex]\vec{x}[/itex] and the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is a straight line extending from [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]? Thanks again
 
Last edited:
nickadams said:
Am I correct in saying the domain of domain of g([itex]\vec{y}[/itex]) is the set of all [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]? And the co-domain of g([itex]\vec{y}[/itex])= [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is the set of all [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex]?

And the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is the set of all vectors that can be attained through linear combinations of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]?
And the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is the set of all vectors that can be attained through linear combinations of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex]?

So how can we say the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is equal to the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] if the vector space of [itex]\vec{proj_{x}y}[/itex] is a line extending from [itex]\vec{x}[/itex] and the vector space of [itex]\vec{y}[/itex] is a straight line extending from [itex]\vec{y}[/itex]?


Thanks again

Ok, so I'm guessing you didn't look up the definition of 'codomain'. I'd suggest you do it. To find the codomain you look at the definition of the function they gave you, "the mapping g:R^3→R^3". The domain is R^3 and the codomain is R^3 because that's the definition they gave you. You don't have to do any work to find the codomain. Just look at the function definition.
 

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