Show that ODE is homogeneous, but I don't think it is

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the classification of a first-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) as homogeneous. The equation in question is expressed as $$M(x,y) dx + N(x,y) dy = 0$$ with $$M(x,y) = x(1-\ln(xy))$$ and $$N(x,y) = -y$$. While $$N(x,y)$$ is confirmed to be homogeneous of degree 1, the term $$M(x,y)$$ fails to meet the same criteria due to the presence of the logarithmic term, which disrupts the homogeneity. The conversation highlights the need for a proper substitution to resolve the homogeneity issue.

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overpen57mm
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Homework Statement
Show the following differential equation is homogeneous and solve it by using an appropriate substitution

dy/dx = y/(x(1-ln(x)+ln(y))
Relevant Equations
M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0,
af(x,y) = f(ax, ay)
Ignoring the second part of the question for now, since I think it will be more clear once I understand how this equation is homogeneous.

According to my textbook and online resources a first-order ODE is homogeneous when it can be written like so:

$$M(x,y) dx + N(x,y) dy = 0$$

and ##M(x,y)## and ##N(x,y)## are both homogeneous to the same degree.

I can write this equation in that form

$$(x(1-\ln(xy)) dy - y dx = 0$$

$$M(x,y) = x(1-\ln(xy)), N(x,y) = -y$$

certainly ##N(x,y)## is homogeneous with degree 1, ##aN(x,y) = -ay = N(ax, ay)##

But I can't get ##M(x,y)## to also be homogeneous with degree 1, or even homogeneous at all

$$aM(x,y) = ax(1-ln(xy))$$

$$M(ax, ay) = ax(1-ln(a^2xy)) = ax - 2axln(a)ln(xy)$$

As you can see, it's simply a different equation altogether, the ##2ln(a)## throws the whole thing off and there's no way it's homogeneous with degree 1.

So how do I get this equation to be homogeneous, and what kind of substitution am I looking for to solve this?
 
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overpen57mm said:
I can write this equation in that form ##(x(1-\ln(xy)) dy - y dx = 0##
There's a mistake above. ##1 - \ln(x) + \ln(y) = 1 - \ln(x/y)##

Also, the term "homogenous differential equation" has two different meanings, due to historical circumstances.
From the textbook I have, "A First Course in Differential Equations," by Frank G. Hagin, if the DE can be written in the form ##\frac{dy}{dx} = f\left(\frac y x\right)##, it is said to be homogeneous.

Rearranging the terms of your equation, I get ##\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac y x \frac 1 {1 + \ln(y/x)}##. The right side certainly is a function of y/x.
 
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Following Mark's post. We can also see if the given DE. Mdx+Ndy= 0 is homogeneous by seeing if M and N have the same degree of homogeneity. But the converse is not necessarily true.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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