Showing a set is closed with the definition of continuity

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves demonstrating that the subset A = {(x, y) : xy = 1} in R^2 is closed using the definition of continuity. The original poster attempts to apply the concept of continuous functions and their preimages to establish the closed nature of the set.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the continuity of the function f(x) = 1/x and its implications for the closed set A. There is a suggestion to consider the function f(x, y) = xy as an alternative approach, which is continuous across R^2.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants providing guidance on alternative functions to consider. There is recognition of a potential flaw in the original approach due to the exclusion of x = 0, prompting further exploration of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of continuity and the definition of closed sets in the context of the problem. There is an acknowledgment of the need to address the behavior of the function at x = 0, which is critical to the proof.

radou
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Homework Statement



I need to show that the subset of R^2 given with A = {(x, y) : xy = 1} is closed by using the "closed set formulation" of continuity.

The Attempt at a Solution



So, if a function f : X --> Y is continuous, then for every closed subset B of Y, its preimage f^-1(B) is closed.

The set A can be written as A = {(x, 1/x) : x is in R\{0}}. Since f(x) = 1/x is a continuous function on R\{0}, and since any subset of R containing only one element is closed, f^-1{a} = {1/a} is a closed subset of R, for every a in R\{0}. Any ordered pair of the form (a, 1/a) can be written as a cartesian product of the sets {a} x {1/a}, which is closed, since the sets are closed. But an infinite union of such sets need not be closed. I feel it's warm around here, but I just can't figure it out.

Perhaps I'm not on the right track. Any help appreciated, as always.
 
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...no thoughts?
 
One major difficulty with your proof is that your function is NOT continuous on any set including x= 0! And there is nothing in your initial statement that says you can exclude x= 0.

I would be inclined, instead, to use the function f(x, y)= xy. That is continuous for all (x, y) in R2.
 
HallsofIvy said:
I would be inclined, instead, to use the function f(x, y)= xy. That is continuous for all (x, y) in R2.

Thanks a lot. In this case, the proof is almost trivial - since {1} is a closed set in R, its preimage must be closed, and it is exactly the set we're looking at.
 

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