Showing Integral form satisfies the Airy function

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The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the integral form of the Airy function satisfies the Airy Differential Equation. The integral is defined as Ai(x) = (1/π) ∫₀^∞ cos((1/3)t³ + xt) dt. The user attempted to differentiate the integral twice with respect to x and substitute it back into the differential equation, but encountered difficulties. A change of variables was suggested to simplify the right-hand side, leading to the conclusion that the integral does not converge to zero. The discussion highlights the challenge of proving the relationship between the integral form and the differential equation.
thrillhouse86
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Hey All,

Can someone please give me the gist of how to show that the integral form of the Airy function for real inputs:
<br /> Ai(x) = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty \cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt,<br />

satisfies the Airy Differential Equation: y'' - xy = 0

I tried differentiating twice wrt to the x variable (assuming I could just bring it inside the integration) and then subbing back into the ODE but that failed.

Regards,
Thrillhouse
 
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Assume that
y = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty \cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt,

and the operations integrate and differentiate can be interchange (??), I obtain

y&#039;&#039;-xy = -\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty (t^2+x)\cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt

Why is RHS identically zero ? :cry:
 
Last edited:
make a change of variables:

u=\frac{1}{3}t^{3}+xt =&gt; du=(t^{2}+x)dt

you will simply have:

-\frac{1}{\pi}\int^{\infty}_{0}cos(u)du

that technically doesn't converge to zero. So that's the most far you can get
 
surely the positive and negative components of the cos function will add up to zero when you integrate ?
 

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