Showing that a basis for the ker(A) is in the kernel

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a system of linear equations represented by a coefficient matrix A and a vector of constants B. The original poster seeks to find the rank, nullity, and bases for the image and kernel of the matrix, as well as to verify that a proposed basis for the kernel is indeed in the kernel.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to find the basis for the kernel and questions how to verify that this basis is in the kernel. Some participants clarify the meaning of "mapping to the zero vector" and suggest checking if the basis vector satisfies the original system of equations.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the verification of the kernel basis by substituting it back into the original equations. There is acknowledgment of the original poster's findings regarding the kernel's dimension and the basis vector, but no explicit consensus on the correctness of the calculations has been reached.

Contextual Notes

The original poster mentions being new to linear algebra and lacking a textbook, which may influence their understanding of the concepts discussed.

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Homework Statement


I'm new to this and I was wondering if anyone could help me out

given:

x+z-w=1
y-z+w=1
x+y+z=3

find the coefficient matrix A, the vector of constants B, use Gauss-jordan elimination to solve the system. Find the Rank(A), the Null(A) and a basis for the im(A) and a basis for the ker(A) then verify that the vectors and in the kernel

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I reduced the matrix, found the rank to be 3 and the null to be 1, the basis for the

im(A) =( [1;0;1] , [0;1;1] , [1;-1;1] )

then I get to the kernel, I set the equations from the reduced matrix to zero and found

x=w
y=-w
z=0

so the basis for the kernel is [1;-1;0;1] right?

how do I show that that basis is in the kernel?
 
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If anything is in the kernel, then it maps to the zero vector. Does this happen?
 
Last edited:
I'm not sure what " maps to the zero vector" means, this is my first course in Linear Algerbra ( two class periods so far ) and we don't have a book to work from.

After I reduce the matrix A|B I get

1 0 0 -1 | 0
0 1 0 1 | 2
0 0 1 0 | 1

which gives

x -w = 0
y+w = 2
z=1

i set these to zero ( not sure if that is right ) and then solve the equations for x and y
then i have

X = [x;y;z;w] = [1;-1;0;1]*w

that column vector then becomes my ker(A) right?
 
"maps to the zero vector" means that if you plug the basis vector into your system you get zero.

So what I was getting at was - if you plug the basis vector that you got for the kernel in your system, does zero come out? If so, it's a basis for the kernel (assuming you did the rest correctly).
 
That a vector v "maps to the zero vector" just means that A*v = 0. You can talk about A as a matrix, but you can also talk about it as function from one vector space to another. That's where the "mapping" terminology comes from.
 
yeah, if i take my basis for the ker(A) and plug the vaules back into the original system i get all of the equations to equal zero. is that right then?

thanks for the help by the way :)
 
As long as the rest is correct - you have a kernel of dimension 1, you have a nonzero vector in it, so it is a basis. I haven't actually looked at the system itself.
 
Thanks!
 

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