Showing that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable

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SUMMARY

This discussion confirms that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable by demonstrating that the geometric multiplicity \( g(\lambda) \) equals the algebraic multiplicity \( a(\lambda) \) for any eigenvalue \( \lambda \). The proof employs contradiction, showing that if a symmetric matrix \( A \) is not diagonalizable, it leads to a contradiction involving the eigenvalue equation \( (A - \lambda_i I)^2 v = 0 \). Additionally, it is established that a symmetric transformation admits an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors, reinforcing the diagonalizability of symmetric matrices.

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JD_PM
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Summary:: Let ##A \in \Bbb R^{n \times n}## be a symmetric matrix and let ##\lambda \in \Bbb R## be an eigenvalue of ##A##. Prove that the geometric multiplicity ##g(\lambda)## of ##A## equals its algebraic multiplicity ##a(\lambda)##.

Let ##A \in \Bbb R^{n \times n}## be a symmetric matrix and let ##\lambda \in \Bbb R## be an eigenvalue of ##A##. Prove that the geometric multiplicity ##g(\lambda)## of ##A## equals its algebraic multiplicity ##a(\lambda)##.

We know that if ##A## is diagonalizable then ##g(\lambda)=a(\lambda)##. So all we have to show is that ##A## is diagonalizable.

I found a proof by contradiction: Assuming ##A## is not diagonalizable we have

$$(A- \lambda_i I)^2 v=0, \ (A- \lambda_i I) v \neq 0$$

Where ##\lambda_i## is some repeated eigenvalue. Then

$$0=v^{\dagger}(A-\lambda_i I)^2v=v^{\dagger}(A-\lambda_i I)(A-\lambda_i I) \neq 0$$

Which is a contradiction (where ##\dagger## stands for conjugate transpose).

But I do not really understand it; what is meant by 'generalized eigenvalues of order ##2## or higher'?

I asked about this proof a while ago but the answer I got did not really convince me...

We could go over an alternative proof of course, the aim is understand how to show that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable.

Thank you! :biggrin:
 
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Well, there is a quite elegant analysis argument for that using compactness of a certain group of matrices (and other machinery), but I'll treat it as a linear algebra problem.

Let E\neq 0 be a real Euclidean space. It is well known that a transformation \varphi on E is symmetric if and only if E admits an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of \varphi.

Now let A be a symmetric real matrix and fix an orthonormal basis e on E (take any basis, give it the Gram-Schmidt treatment and normalise it, say). The corresponding transformation \varphi is then symmetric. Let f be an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of \varphi.

The matrix of \varphi with respect to f, call it B, is diagonal.

Let T be the transition matrix from e to f. Then B=T^{-1}AT, thus A is similar to a diagonal matrix i.e is diagonalisable. Transition matrix between orthonormed bases is orthogonal, so can replace T^{-1}=T^t.

Remark: in the complex case, this is not true. However, Hermitian matrices are diagonalisable.
 
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You have two separate questions, I feel. So I'll briefly address the second one. Yes, diagonalisability is equivalent to g(\lambda) = a(\lambda). This is because equality of multiplicities is equivalent to the space admitting a basis of eigenvectors. Also, similar matrices have the same characteristic polynomial.
 

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