Showing that the Schrödinger equation implies the de Broglie relation when PE=0

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the solution to the time-independent Schrödinger equation for a freely moving particle, specifically when the potential energy is zero. Participants explore the implications of the Schrödinger equation and seek a derivation of a specific solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the Schrödinger equation and its simplification under the condition of zero potential energy, leading to a specific form of the equation.
  • The same participant expresses a desire to derive the solution independently rather than relying on external sources.
  • Another participant provides a link to an external resource that may contain the derivation sought by the original poster.
  • A later reply acknowledges the contradiction in seeking help while also wanting to derive the solution independently.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the derivation process, as one seeks to derive it independently while another suggests an external resource. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the derivation itself.

Contextual Notes

There is an assumption that the participants are familiar with the mathematical techniques required for deriving solutions to differential equations, and the discussion does not clarify specific steps or methods involved in the derivation.

qLinusq
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Hello,

In the book physical chemistry (P. Atkins & Julio de Paula, 2009, 5 ED) the authors derive a justification of the Schrödinger equation.

1.) [tex]\frac{-\hbar^{2}}{2m} \frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^{2}}+V(x)\psi=E \psi[/tex]

The derivation goes as follows:

Derivation:
We can justify the form of the Schrödinger equation to a certain extent by showing that it implies the de Broglie relation for a freely moving particle.
By free motion we mean motion in a region where the potential energy is zero (V=0 everywhere).

If V=0, equation 1 simplifies to:

2.) [tex]\frac{-\hbar^{2}}{2m} \frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^{2}}=E \psi[/tex]

So far all good, however they then present a solution to equation 2. without showing how they obtained it.

The solution is:

[tex]\psi=sin(kx)[/tex]
[tex]k=\frac{(2mE)^{2}}{\hbar}[/tex]

I have no problem understanding that this is a valid solution however i would like to derive it myself.

Could you provide me with the derivation to the solution of equation 2?

/Thanks in advance,

Linus.
 
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qLinusq said:
Could you provide me with the derivation to the solution of equation 2?

I think you can find it here:

http://www.cliffsnotes.com/study_guide/Constant-Coefficients.topicArticleId-19736,articleId-19720.html
 
Last edited by a moderator:
qLinusq said:
i would like to derive it myself.

Could you provide me with the derivation to the solution of equation 2?

:confused: :smile:
 
Lol, yes I can see how what I wrote is contradicting. That is the kind of help that I was looking for actually.

/Thank you torquil :)
 

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