AxiomOfChoice
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If you have two measurable sets [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]B[/itex] (not necessarily disjoint), is there an easy formula for the measure of the difference, [itex]m(A-B)[/itex]?
Thanks! But can you explain why this is this justified? There is a corollary in my textbook that gives [itex]m(B-A) = m(B) - m(A)[/itex] if [itex]A\subseteq B[/itex]. Do we have [itex]S-T = S - (S\cap T)[/itex] for any sets [itex]S[/itex] and [itex]T[/itex]? If we do, I'm satisfied...g_edgar said:[tex]m(A-B) = m(A) - m(A\cap B)[/tex]
or, slightly better since it holds even if [tex]m(A) = \infty[/tex],
[tex]m(A-B) + m(A\cap B) = m(A)[/tex]
AxiomOfChoice said:Do we have [itex]S-T = S - (S\cap T)[/itex] for any sets [itex]S[/itex] and [itex]T[/itex]? If we do, I'm satisfied...