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**100**tickets of type

**A**, and

**100**tickets of type

**B**in a box. Let's also say the probability to draw ticket

**A**, for whatever reason, is twice that to draw ticket

**B**.

Is this problem, for all intents and purposes, mathematically equivalent to having 200 type A tickets and 100 type B tickets with the probability of drawing both ticket A and B being equal?

The reason I'm asking is that Bayes' rule and so on seems to be based on the thinking that every single element in the sample space ##S## has an equal probability to be "picked" to any other element in ##S##..