Tensor Product of \mathbb{Z}_{10} and \mathbb{Z}_{12} with a Surprising Result

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around proving that the tensor product \mathbb{Z}_{10} \otimes_{\mathbb{Z}} \mathbb{Z}_{12} is isomorphic to \mathbb{Z}_{2}. Participants explore the implications of elements in \mathbb{Z}_{10} and \mathbb{Z}_{12} when combined through the tensor product, particularly focusing on cases where one of the elements is zero. Key points include demonstrating that 1 \otimes 10 equals zero and that for even integers m, m \otimes 1 also results in zero. The conversation highlights the relationship between tensor products of \mathbb{Z}-modules and abelian groups, confirming that they are equivalent. Ultimately, the participants arrive at a satisfactory understanding of the problem.
Kindayr
Messages
159
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Show that \mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12} \cong \mathbb{Z}_{2}

The Attempt at a Solution


Clearly, for any 0\neq m\in\mathbb{Z}_{10} and 0\neq n \in \mathbb{Z}_{12} we have that m\otimes n = mn(1\otimes 1), and if either m=0 or n=0 we have that m\otimes n = 0\otimes 0.

I just don't know how to finish it.

I'm just working through Vakil's Algebraic Geometry monograph for fun, and this seemingly trivial question is bothering me.

Thank you for any help!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you prove that 1\otimes 10=0?
 
yepp

1 \otimes 10 = 10(1\otimes 1)=10\otimes 1 = 0\otimes 1=0.
 
What about m\otimes 1. Can you prove that this is 0 for even m?
 
micromass said:
What about m\otimes 1. Can you prove that this is 0 for even m?

Well it is trivial if m=0, so suppose m\neq 0 even. Then it follows that m=2k hence m \otimes 1 = 2k\otimes 1 = 2(k\otimes 1)

Hence, for any morphism of \mathbb{Z}-modules \phi : (\mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12})\to \mathbb{Z}_{2}, it follows that \phi(m\otimes1)=2\phi(k\otimes 1)=0\in\mathbb{Z}_{2}.

Also, another question, if we're dealing with \mathbb{Z}-modules, we can treat them as abelian groups. So what would the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules translate to for abelian groups?
 
Actually, I guess that doesn't really prove anything since it isn't assumed that \phi is injective. Hrmm...
 
Try the following for example:

2\otimes 1=12\otimes 1=0

As for your other question. The tensor product of abelian groups is exactly defined as the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules.
 
micromass said:
Try the following for example:

2\otimes 1=12\otimes 1=0

As for your other question. The tensor product of abelian groups is exactly defined as the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules.

We have 0= 1\otimes 0 = 1\otimes 12= 12(1\otimes 1)=12\otimes 1=(2\otimes 1)+ (10\otimes 1)=(2\otimes 1)+0=2\otimes 1.

Hence, m\otimes 1 = k(2\otimes 1)=0.
 
Thanks for the help!

I got it.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
15
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
950
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
3K