Sin(npi/2) non-convergence to 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the sequence sin(nπ/2) and whether it converges to 0. Participants are exploring the properties of this sequence within the context of limits and convergence in mathematical analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss demonstrating non-convergence using the definition of limits, specifically through epsilon arguments. There are attempts to relate the sequence to known values and to define it in terms of other sequences, such as (-1)^n.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants questioning each other's reasoning and exploring different approaches to prove non-convergence. Some guidance has been offered regarding the calculation of sin(nπ/2) and its implications for proving limits.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the challenge of proving non-convergence to 0 while also addressing the sequence's behavior at even and odd indices. There is a focus on the formal definition of limits and the implications of comparing terms from different subsequences.

peripatein
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Hello,

I'd like to show that sin(npi/2) does not converge. I have managed to show that it does not converge to +-1, but how may I also prove that it does not converge to 0?
 
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sin(0*pi/2)=0, sin(1*pi/2)=1, sin(2*pi/2)=0, sin(3*pi/2)=(-1), sin(4*pi/2)=0. Now just kind of extrapolate.
 
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.
 
peripatein said:
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.

How did you show it doesn't converge to +/-1? Why is it harder to show it doesn't converge to 0?
 
peripatein said:
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.

Sure. But what Dick is suggesting is that you actually calculate \sin(n\pi /2) and to describe the sequence without sines. This makes it way easier to prove that a limit does not exist.
 
In order to prove that it does not converge to +-1, I simply defined it as (-1)^n and then showed that for any even n (or odd n, in the case of limit being +1) |(-1)^n - 1| >= epsilon (taking epsilon=1).
But what would be the general term, the equivalent of (-1)^n, for 0? I mean, I'd still have to prove that the sequence does not converge to 0 in order for my proof to be complete.
 
peripatein said:
In order to prove that it does not converge to +-1, I simply defined it as (-1)^n and then showed that for any even n (or odd n, in the case of limit being +1) |(-1)^n - 1| >= epsilon (taking epsilon=1).
But what would be the general term, the equivalent of (-1)^n, for 0? I mean, I'd still have to prove that the sequence does not converge to 0 in order for my proof to be complete.

Now why would you 'define' sin(pi*n/2) to be (-1)^n when it isn't true? That would seem like a losing strategy for proving something?
 
Last edited:
It is true and is equal to (-1)^n for all odd positions, i.e. n=2k+1.
 
peripatein said:
It is true and is equal to (-1)^n for all odd positions, i.e. n=2k+1.

I'd write that as (-1)^k but alright. Your sequence is 0 for even n. It's also true |(-1)^k-0|>=1. Can't you use the same argument? There's no rule against comparing even terms with odd terms.
 

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