TSny said:
I don't think D is in the axial direction for all points on the gaussian surface.
TSny said:
For the long, thin cylinder D would be fairly strong inside the cylinder.
In the vicinity of the axis, the electric field and polarization are along the axis. Consequently, ##\vec D ## will be along the axis. And the Gaussian infinite cylinder encloses only this region.
So, using the argument given in post #4, ##\vec D## is 0.
Pushoam said:
Hence ,##\vec D## in the vicinity of the axis is 0.
TSny said:
##\vec E ## will be very small inside the cylinder except near the ends.
How do you get to know this?
The cylinder has the opposite charge densities at the two ends respectively. So, how can one know it before solving it?
BTW, if I assume what you said, then multiplied by ε_0, ## \vec E ## becomes very very small compared to ## \vec P ##. Consequently, ##\ hat D≈ \hat z##.
TSny said:
As an analogy, replace the electret by a solenoid of the same shape. The divergence of B is zero everywhere. So, the flux of B through any closed surface must be zero. In particular, if you choose a gaussian surface as you did for the electret cylinder, then the total flux of B through this surface is zero. But, we know that B is not zero inside the solenoid.
If you choose a gaussian surface as you did for the electret cylinder, then the total flux of B through this surface is zero.
Yes, I choose so as I think there is nothing wrong in choosing this Gaussian Surface. So, the flux through the end surface inside the solenoid is 0.
As the magnetic field is along the axis and constant, I can take it outside the integration, which gives zero magnetic field.
So, something is wrong with this argument. This I understood.
But what is wrong?
TSny said:
The relation ##\nabla \cdot \vec D = \rho_{\rm free} ##does not mean that ##\rho_{\rm free}## alone determines##\vec D##. A vector field is determined by both its divergence and its curl (and maybe boundary conditions). From ⃗##\vec D = \varepsilon_0 \vec E + \vec P ## and the fact that the curl of ##\vec E ## is zero for an electrostatic field, you can see that ##\nabla \times \vec D = \nabla \times \vec P## for the electret. So, ##\vec P## also acts as a "source" for ## \vec D## .
Yes, so,I have:
##\nabla \cdot \vec D = \rho_{\rm free} =0 ##
##\nabla \times \vec D = \nabla \times \vec P =0##
Boundary Conditions: At infinity, ## \vec D ## is 0.
Now, ## \vec D = 0 ## satisfies all three.
So, using uniqueness theorem, ##\vec D = 0##.
I have listed above all the arguments which make me think ##\vec D = 0##. Are these correct?