Small Angle Approximation in Single Slit Interference

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The discussion revolves around the use of the small angle approximation in a double slit interference scenario. A monochromatic light source creates an interference pattern, with the second bright spot located 8.73 mm above the central maximum on a screen 2.00 meters away. The small angle approximation can be applied since the calculated angle θ is approximately 0.00436 radians or 0.25 degrees, which is considered very small. The relationship between the distance to the screen (D) and the distance between slits (d) is crucial, with the condition D >> d being necessary for accurate approximations. Ultimately, the small angle approximation is validated for this specific setup.
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Homework Statement


A monochromatic light source is used with a double slit to create an interference pattern on a screen that is 2.00 meters away. If the 2nd bright spot is observed 8.73 mm above the central maximum, can the small angle approximation be used? Show and/or explain your reasoning

Homework Equations


## d\sinθ=mλ ##

The Attempt at a Solution


I might be over-thinking this. I know you can have a small angle approximation if D >> d, but in this case I don't know d yet, so I first wanted to relate d to y without first assuming a small angle approximation (sinθ ≈ tanθ ≈ θ), but I get stuck:

p6hLM2y.jpg


I get the following relation:
## D=\frac{d}{2\tan(γ)} ##
## D= (y+\frac{d}{2}) * \frac{1}{ \tan(θ)} ##

## \frac{d}{2}\cot(γ) = y\cot(θ) + \frac{d}{2}\cot(θ) ##

I'm not sure how to solve for d here so that I can show that D >> d.

Thanks in advance!
 
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D>>d/2 is necessary for other approximations (all your formulas wouldn't work without that condition).

The small angle approximation that is relevant here is a small θ. You can calculate θ with D and y alone in a single step.
 
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mfb, that makes sense thank you!

So in this case tan(θ) = y/D

## θ = \arctan(\frac{y}{D}) ##
## θ = \arctan(\frac{8.73*10e-3}{2}) ##

θ = 0.00436 rad ~ 0.25 degrees
That is a very small angle, so I can use a small angle approximation here!
 
Right.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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