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The definition (see attachment) says that f(x) is a solution to

the differential equation if it satisfies the equation foreveryx

in the interval.

Assuming that I have a differential equation that I want to

solve and the D.E. has an interval [itex]I_1[/itex], and I've

come up a solution with an interval [itex]I_2[/itex],

where [itex]I_2[/itex] is a subset of [itex]I_1[/itex], is it

still a solution to the differential equation? If it isn't, does the

solution still make sense?

I'm new to differential equations and haven't solved anything

DE yet.

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# Solution of an Ordinary Differential Equation

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